ATI RN
ATI Community Health Nursing Ch 9
1. How do social determinants impact health?
- A. They directly affect health behaviors and outcomes.
- B. They primarily influence genetic predisposition.
- C. They have minimal impact on overall health.
- D. They determine access to health resources.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Social determinants play a significant role in impacting health by directly influencing health behaviors and outcomes. These determinants include factors such as socioeconomic status, education, neighborhood, and access to healthcare, which shape the conditions in which individuals live, work, and age, ultimately affecting their health status.
2. During an assessment of a male client suspected of having a disorder of motor function, which finding would suggest a possible upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion?
- A. Hypotonia
- B. Hyperreflexia
- C. Muscle atrophy
- D. Fasciculations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hyperreflexia, or exaggerated reflexes, is a common sign of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion. An UMN lesion indicates damage to the central nervous system pathways that control movement. Hypotonia (choice A) refers to reduced muscle tone, which is more indicative of lower motor neuron lesions. Muscle atrophy (choice C) suggests long-standing denervation or disuse of muscles. Fasciculations (choice D) are involuntary muscle contractions that can be seen in lower motor neuron lesions, like in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), rather than UMN lesions.
3. A nurse in a pediatric clinic is reviewing laboratory findings for a school-age child. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Hgb 12.5 g/dL
- B. Platelets 250,000/mm3
- C. WBC 14,000/mm3
- D. Hct 40%
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Hct 40%'. An abnormal hematocrit (Hct) level can indicate various conditions such as dehydration, overhydration, or blood disorders, and requires immediate attention from the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not typically warrant immediate provider notification. Hgb 12.5 g/dL (Choice A) is a normal hemoglobin level, Platelets 250,000/mm3 (Choice B) is a normal platelet count, and WBC 14,000/mm3 (Choice C) is slightly elevated but not significantly high to require urgent reporting.
4. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. What finding should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Ototoxicity
- D. Hemorrhagic cystitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is receiving cyclophosphamide, the nurse should monitor for hemorrhagic cystitis, a severe adverse effect caused by bladder irritation. It is essential to watch for signs such as hematuria, dysuria, and urinary frequency, and promptly intervene to prevent further complications. Hypertension (Choice A) is not typically associated with cyclophosphamide use. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common side effect of cyclophosphamide. Ototoxicity (Choice C) is more commonly associated with medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics or high-dose aspirin.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review to evaluate the therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. aPTT
- B. INR
- C. Serum glucose
- D. Bilirubin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the most reliable test for evaluating the therapeutic effects of warfarin therapy. INR measures the clotting ability of the blood and helps determine if the dosage of warfarin is within the therapeutic range. Choice A, aPTT, is not typically used to monitor the effects of warfarin. Choice C, Serum glucose, and choice D, Bilirubin, are not relevant to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.
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