Nursing Elites

1. Which assessment finding would necessitate action by the nurse for a 10-month-old child who is 4 hours postoperative for the placement of a urethral stent?

• A. Bloody urine
• B. One void since returning from surgery
• C. Bladder spasms responding to pharmacologic intervention
• D. Double diapering from the previous shift

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a postoperative scenario after the placement of a urethral stent, monitoring the child's voiding frequency is crucial. Having only one void since returning from surgery could indicate potential issues like urinary retention, which necessitates prompt nursing intervention to prevent complications.

2. Which parental statement at the end of a teaching session by the nurse indicates correct understanding of colostomy stoma care for the infant client?

• A. We will change the colostomy bag with each wet diaper.
• B. We will expect a moderate amount of bleeding after cleansing the area around the stoma.
• C. We will watch for skin irritation around the stoma.
• D. We will use adhesive enhancers when we change the bag.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choosing option C, 'We will watch for skin irritation around the stoma,' demonstrates understanding of proper colostomy stoma care. Monitoring for skin irritation is crucial as it can indicate issues such as leakage, improper sealing, or infection. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Changing the colostomy bag with each wet diaper (option A) is unnecessary unless indicated by a healthcare provider to prevent skin breakdown. Expecting bleeding after cleansing (option B) is not normal and may signal a problem that requires medical attention. Using adhesive enhancers (option D) should be done based on specific recommendations and not necessarily with every bag change.

3. In the morning, a healthcare professional receives change-of-shift report on four pediatric clients, each of whom has some form of fluid-volume excess. Which of the children should the healthcare professional see first?

• A. The child with tachypnea and pulmonary congestion
• B. The child with hepatomegaly and normal respiratory rate
• C. The child with dependent and sacral edema and regular pulse
• D. The child with periorbital edema and normal respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The child with tachypnea and pulmonary congestion should be seen first. Tachypnea indicates an increased respiratory rate, a sign of possible respiratory distress. Pulmonary congestion suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, posing a serious risk to respiratory function. Immediate attention is crucial in this case. Choice B is incorrect as hepatomegaly alone does not indicate an acute issue requiring immediate attention. Choices C and D, while showing signs of fluid-volume excess, do not present the same level of respiratory compromise as tachypnea and pulmonary congestion, making them lower priority.

4. The patient taking warfarin for prevention of deep vein thrombosis has an INR of 1.2. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Administer IV push protamine sulfate
• B. Continue with the current prescription.
• C. Prepare to administer Vitamin K
• D. Call healthcare provider to increase the dose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An INR level of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range (2-3) for warfarin therapy. Therefore, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider to discuss the need for an increased dose to achieve the desired therapeutic range and prevent deep vein thrombosis effectively. Administering IV push protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not warfarin. Continuing with the current prescription without addressing the subtherapeutic INR level may not effectively prevent deep vein thrombosis. Administering Vitamin K is indicated for warfarin overdose leading to excessive anticoagulation, not for a subtherapeutic INR level that is below the target range.

5. The nurse is reviewing the prescriber�s orders and notes that omeprazole has been order for a patient admitted with acute coronary syndrome (ACS). The nurse should be concerned if this medication is combined with which medication noted on the patient�s record.

• A. Aspirin 81mg daily
• B. Clopidogrel (Plavix) 75mg daily
• C. Heparin 5000 units subQ q12hrs
• D. Metoprolol 50mg q8hrs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For patients who lack risk factors for GI bleeding, combined use of clopidogrel with a PPI, may reduce the effects of clopidogrel without offering any real benefits and thus should be avoided.

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