ATI RN
ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam 2023
1. The nurse is providing care for a pediatric client in the emergency department (ED) with a diagnosis of decreased level of consciousness (LOC) secondary to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which healthcare provider order should the nurse question?
- A. Passive range-of-motion exercises to promote hip flexion
- B. Oxygen at 2 L nasal cannula to maintain saturation above 95%
- C. Hourly vital signs and neurologic checks
- D. Elevate head of bed 30 degrees
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a pediatric client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and decreased level of consciousness (LOC), passive range-of-motion exercises to promote hip flexion should be questioned as they can potentially increase intracranial pressure. This action may not be safe for the client's condition. The other options are appropriate interventions for managing a pediatric client with increased ICP and decreased LOC.
2. A caregiver is seeking guidance from a healthcare provider concerning a child diagnosed with impetigo. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Apply warm compresses to the affected area.
- B. Keep the child home from school until lesions are crusted over.
- C. Apply antibiotic ointment to the lesions.
- D. Cleanse the affected area with hydrogen peroxide.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The healthcare provider should recommend applying antibiotic ointment to the lesions to prevent the spread of infection and facilitate healing. Antibiotic ointment helps combat the bacterial infection associated with impetigo and supports the skin's recovery process. This approach aids in reducing symptoms, preventing complications, and promoting a quicker resolution of the condition.
3. Which urinalysis result should the nurse anticipate for a child admitted with acute glomerulonephritis?
- A. Bacteriuria and increased specific gravity
- B. Hematuria and proteinuria
- C. Proteinuria and decreased specific gravity
- D. Bacteriuria and hematuria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute glomerulonephritis, the glomeruli become inflamed, leading to the leakage of red blood cells (hematuria) and proteins (proteinuria) into the urine. These are hallmark findings in this condition due to the damage to the glomerular filtration barrier. Bacteriuria, the presence of bacteria in the urine, is not typically associated with acute glomerulonephritis unless there is a concurrent urinary tract infection. Specific gravity may be normal or decreased due to the loss of proteins in the urine, rather than increased. Therefore, the correct anticipated urinalysis result for a child with acute glomerulonephritis is hematuria and proteinuria.
4. A nurse assesses a male patient who has developed gynecomastia while receiving treatment for peptic ulcers. Which medication from the patient�s history should the nurse recognize as a contributing factor?
- A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
- B. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
- C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
- D. Omeprazole (Prilosec)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cimetidine binds to androgen receptors, producing receptor blockade, which can cause enlarged breast tissue, reduced libido, and impotence. All these effects reverse when dosing stops. Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and omeprazole are not associated with gynecomastia.
5. The nurse plans to closely monitor for which clinical manifestation after administering furosemide (Lasix)?
- A. Decrease pulse
- B. Decrease temperature
- C. Decrease BP
- D. Decrease respiratory rate.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: High-ceiling diuretics, such as furosemide, are the most effective diuretic agents. They produce more loss of fluid and electrolytes than any others. A sudden loss of fluid can result in decreased BP. When BP drops, the pulse will probably increase rather than decrease.
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