Nursing Elites

1. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system plays an important role in maintaining blood pressure. Which compound in this system is most powerful at raising blood pressure?

• A. Angiotensin I
• B. Angiotensin II
• C. Angiotensin III
• D. Renin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Angiotensin II is the most potent compound in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system for raising blood pressure. It acts as a powerful vasoconstrictor, leading to increased systemic vascular resistance. Angiotensin II is formed from angiotensin I through the action of the angiotensin-converting enzyme. While renin initiates the cascade by converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, it is angiotensin II that exerts the strongest pressor effect.

2. Which clinical manifestation should a nurse monitor for when assessing a pediatric client diagnosed with a basilar skull fracture?

• A. Periorbital ecchymosis
• B. Subdural hematoma
• C. Protruding bone
• D. Epidural hematoma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Periorbital ecchymosis, also known as raccoon eyes, is a classic sign of a basilar skull fracture. It presents as bruising around the eyes due to blood collecting in the tissues. Monitoring for periorbital ecchymosis is crucial in assessing a pediatric client with a basilar skull fracture because it can indicate the presence of this serious injury.

3. A patient with Parkinson’s disease who takes levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) comes to the clinic for a semi-annual physical examination. Which question is the most important for that nurse to ask?

• A. Have you noticed any swelling in your feet?
• B. Are you having vivid dreams or hallucination?
• C. Have you noticed any changes in your stool?
• D. Have you had your flu vaccine?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients taking levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) are at increased risk for the psychiatric side effects of levodopa, including visual hallucinations, vivid dreams, nightmares, and paranoid ideation. The other questions are not directly related to problems that are likely to occur with this drug.

4. Which law provides for infants and toddlers aged 0-2 who are in need of comprehensive early intervention services?

• A. IDEA- Part B
• B. IDEA- Part A
• C. IFSP
• D. IDEA- Part C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, IDEA Part C. IDEA Part C specifically focuses on providing early intervention services to infants and toddlers with disabilities. This law ensures that children aged 0-2 receive the necessary support and services to aid in their development and address any disabilities or developmental delays early on. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. IDEA Part B pertains to services for school-aged children with disabilities, IDEA Part A does not exist in the context of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA), and IFSP stands for Individualized Family Service Plan, which is a document outlining services for children from birth to age 3 who are experiencing developmental delays or disabilities, but it is not a law in itself.

5. At what age range is it important to feed a baby in a more upright position and no longer in sidelying?

• A. 6-12 months
• B. 4-6 months
• C. 12-18 months
• D. Birth to 3 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Feeding a baby in a more upright position and no longer in sidelying is important around 4-6 months of age. At this stage, babies start developing better head and trunk control, which allows them to sit in a more upright position for feeding, promoting safer and more efficient swallowing and digestion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as feeding a baby in a more upright position typically starts around 4-6 months when the baby has gained more control over their head and trunk movements, making it safer and more effective for feeding.

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