Nursing Elites

1. Which assessment finding should the nurse caring for a patient with thrombocytopenia communicate immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. The platelet count is 52,000/µL
• B. The patient is difficult to arouse
• C. There are purpura on the oral mucosa
• D. There are large bruises on the patient's back

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Difficulty in arousing the patient may indicate a cerebral hemorrhage, which is life-threatening and requires immediate action. While a low platelet count (choice A) is concerning in thrombocytopenia, it does not require immediate communication unless accompanied by active bleeding or other critical symptoms. Purpura on the oral mucosa (choice C) and large bruises on the patient's back (choice D) are important findings in thrombocytopenia but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation like a possible cerebral hemorrhage.

2. The nurse assesses a patient who has numerous petechiae on both arms. Which question should the nurse ask the patient?

• A. Are you taking any oral contraceptives?
• B. Have you been prescribed antiseizure drugs?
• C. Do you take medication containing salicylates?
• D. How long have you been taking antihypertensive drugs?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Do you take medication containing salicylates?' Petechiae are tiny, pinpoint, red or purple spots on the skin due to bleeding under the skin. Salicylates, which are found in medications like aspirin, interfere with platelet function and can lead to petechiae and ecchymoses. Asking about salicylate-containing medications is crucial in this situation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the development of petechiae.

3. A patient who has immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before obtaining and administering platelets?

• A. Platelet count is 42,000/µL
• B. Petechiae are present on the chest
• C. Blood pressure (BP) is 94/56 mm Hg
• D. Blood is oozing from the venipuncture site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Platelet transfusions are not usually indicated until the platelet count is below 10,000 to 20,000/µL unless the patient is actively bleeding. In this scenario, the platelet count of 42,000/µL is not significantly low to warrant a platelet transfusion without active bleeding. Consulting with the healthcare provider is essential before giving the transfusion to ensure the appropriateness of the treatment. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the need for consulting before a platelet transfusion. Petechiae, low blood pressure, and oozing from the venipuncture site are common findings in patients with ITP and may not necessarily contraindicate a platelet transfusion at this platelet count.

4. A patient with pancytopenia of unknown origin is scheduled for the following diagnostic tests. The nurse will provide a consent form to sign for which test?

• A. Bone marrow biopsy
• B. Abdominal ultrasound
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of a patient with pancytopenia of unknown origin, a bone marrow biopsy is usually indicated to determine the cause. A bone marrow biopsy is a minor surgical procedure that requires the patient or guardian to sign a surgical consent form. Abdominal ultrasound (Choice B) is not typically used to diagnose pancytopenia. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) (Choice C) is a routine blood test and does not require a specific consent form. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) (Choice D) is a coagulation test and not typically performed to diagnose pancytopenia.

5. Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?

• A. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who reports his eyes always look somewhat yellow
• B. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
• C. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
• D. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.

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