Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a patient post coronary artery bypass graft who rates his/her pain as an 8 out of 10 on the subjective pain scale. Should the nurse choose to administer morphine sulfate intravenously as it has benefits to cardiac patients (select one that does not apply)?

• A. Decreasing myocardial oxygen supply
• B. Decreasing myocardial oxygen consumption
• C. Decreasing heart rate
• D. Increasing blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine sulfate, a potent opioid analgesic, can cause vasodilation leading to a decrease in blood pressure rather than an increase. Choice A is incorrect as morphine can decrease myocardial oxygen consumption by reducing the workload of the heart. Choice B is incorrect as morphine can decrease heart rate as a side effect. Choice C is incorrect as morphine typically decreases blood pressure rather than increasing it.

2. Which statement by a patient indicates good understanding of the nurse’s teaching about prevention of sickle cell crisis?

• A. Home oxygen therapy is frequently used to decrease sickling.
• B. There are no effective medications that can help prevent sickling.
• C. Routine continuous dosage narcotics are prescribed to prevent a crisis.
• D. Risk for a crisis is decreased by having an annual influenza vaccination.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Because infection is the most common cause of a sickle cell crisis, influenza, Haemophilus influenzae, pneumococcal pneumonia, and hepatitis immunizations should be administered.

3. Which patient should the nurse assign as the roommate for a patient who has aplastic anemia?

• A. A patient with chronic heart failure
• B. A patient who has viral pneumonia
• C. A patient who has right leg cellulitis
• D. A patient with multiple abdominal drains

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because patients with aplastic anemia are at risk for infection due to low white blood cell production. Assigning a roommate with viral pneumonia (choice B), cellulitis (choice C), or multiple abdominal drains (choice D) could expose the patient with aplastic anemia to potential infectious agents, which could further compromise their health.

4. After a patient with pancytopenia undergoes a bone marrow aspiration from the left posterior iliac crest, which action would be important for the nurse to take?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
• B. Have the patient lie on the left side for 1 hour.
• C. Apply a sterile 2-inch gauze dressing to the site.
• D. Use a half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a bone marrow aspiration, it is important to have the patient lie on the left side for 30 to 60 minutes to decrease the risk of bleeding. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees does not directly address the risk of bleeding. Applying a sterile 2-inch gauze dressing to the site is important for wound care but does not specifically address post-procedural positioning. Using a half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound is not necessary after a bone marrow aspiration.

5. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes a patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Heparin
• C. Warfarin
• D. Erythropoietin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds indicates a prolonged time, which is associated with heparin administration. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to an increased aPTT. Aspirin (choice A) affects platelet aggregation and does not directly impact aPTT. Warfarin (choice C) affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is monitored using the international normalized ratio (INR), not aPTT. Erythropoietin (choice D) is not related to coagulation parameters.

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