ATI RN
ATI Perfusion Questions
1. The nurse is caring for a patient post coronary artery bypass graft who rates his/her pain as an 8 out of 10 on the subjective pain scale. Should the nurse choose to administer morphine sulfate intravenously as it has benefits to cardiac patients (select one that does not apply)?
- A. Decreasing myocardial oxygen supply
- B. Decreasing myocardial oxygen consumption
- C. Decreasing heart rate
- D. Increasing blood pressure
Correct answer: Increasing blood pressure
Rationale: Morphine sulfate, a potent opioid analgesic, can cause vasodilation leading to a decrease in blood pressure rather than an increase. Choice A is incorrect as morphine can decrease myocardial oxygen consumption by reducing the workload of the heart. Choice B is incorrect as morphine can decrease heart rate as a side effect. Choice C is incorrect as morphine typically decreases blood pressure rather than increasing it.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who requires total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take when finding that the TPN solution is infusing too rapidly?
- A. Sit the client upright
- B. Stop the TPN infusion
- C. Turn the client on their left side
- D. Prepare to add insulin to the TPN infusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when finding that the TPN solution is infusing too rapidly is to stop the TPN infusion. This is crucial to prevent fluid overload and ensure the client's safety. Sitting the client upright (Choice A) or turning the client on their left side (Choice C) are not appropriate responses to a rapidly infusing TPN solution and do not address the immediate issue of preventing complications from the rapid infusion. Adding insulin to the TPN infusion (Choice D) is not indicated unless specifically prescribed by the healthcare provider for the client's condition. Therefore, the priority action is to stop the TPN infusion to prevent potential harm.
3. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client on an ACE inhibitor. What lab value is most important to monitor?
- A. Potassium
- B. Sodium
- C. Creatinine
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. When a client is on an ACE inhibitor, it is crucial to monitor potassium levels because ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in potassium, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B) is not as critical in this scenario. Creatinine levels (Choice C) are important for assessing kidney function but are not the most crucial lab value to monitor with ACE inhibitors. Calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly affected by ACE inhibitors and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.
4. A client with iron-deficiency anemia is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Oatmeal
- B. Red meat
- C. Bananas
- D. Whole grains
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Red meat. Red meat is a good dietary source of heme iron, which is easily absorbed by the body and beneficial for individuals with iron-deficiency anemia. Oatmeal, bananas, and whole grains are not as rich in iron compared to red meat and may not provide sufficient amounts to help manage iron-deficiency anemia effectively.
5. What is a common factor related to all forms of heart failure?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Pulmonary edema
- C. Reduced cardiac output
- D. Jugular vein distention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reduced cardiac output. All forms of heart failure share this common factor, which occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While peripheral edema and pulmonary edema can be symptoms of heart failure, they are not universal to all forms. Jugular vein distention is a sign of right heart failure, not a common factor across all types of heart failure.
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