ATI RN
ATI Gastrointestinal System
1. When obtaining a nursing history on a client with a suspected gastric ulcer, which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to see? Select all that apply.
- A. Epigastric pain at night
- B. Relief of epigastric pain after eating
- C. Vomiting
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: 1, 3, 4
Rationale: Signs and symptoms of a gastric ulcer include epigastric pain at night, vomiting, and weight loss. Relief of epigastric pain after eating is not typically associated with gastric ulcers.
2. A child with acetaminophen (Tylenol) poisoning has been admitted to the emergency department. What antidote does the nurse anticipate being prescribed?
- A. Carnitine (Carnitor)
- B. Fomepizole (Antizol)
- C. Deferoxamine (Desferal)
- D. N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: N-acetylcysteine is the specific antidote for acetaminophen poisoning, working by replenishing glutathione and preventing liver damage. The other options are antidotes for different types of poisoning (e.g., Fomepizole for methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning).
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient with pneumonia. Which finding is most concerning?
- A. Fever of 101°F.
- B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg.
- C. Heart rate of 95 beats per minute.
- D. Crackles heard in the lung bases.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Crackles heard in the lung bases are most concerning in a patient with pneumonia as they suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, indicating possible severe infection or respiratory distress. Prompt intervention is required to prevent further complications.\n\nChoice A, fever of 101°F, is common in infections like pneumonia but may not be as immediately concerning as crackles indicating fluid in the lungs.\n\nChoice B, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, is within normal limits and not directly indicative of pneumonia severity.\n\nChoice C, a heart rate of 95 beats per minute, is slightly elevated but not as critical as crackles suggesting fluid in the lungs.
4. A client is starting to take amitriptyline. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Dry cough
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urinary retention. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, can cause relaxation of the bladder sphincter muscles, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for urinary retention is crucial as it is a common anticholinergic effect associated with this medication. Diarrhea (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline. Bradycardia (choice C) is more commonly associated with beta-blockers rather than tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline. Dry cough (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.
5. The physician orders a Salem sump tube for gastrointestinal intubation. The nurse prepares for the insertion and obtains which of the following items from the supply room?
- A. A tube with a single lumen that connects to suction
- B. A tube with a large lumen and an air vent
- C. A Sengstaken-Blakemore tube
- D. A Dobbhoff weighted tube
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A tube with a large lumen and an air vent is a Salem sump tube. A tube with a single lumen is called a Levin’s tube. A Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used to control bleeding in the esophagus. A Dobbhoff weighted tube is used for feedings.
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