Nursing Elites

1. A 30-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with complaints of severe abdominal cramping and diarrhea. The nurse evaluates the effectiveness of the patient's intravenous therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests BEST reflects hydration status?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
• B. White blood cell count.
• C. Hematocrit.
• D. Serum glucose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hematocrit is the best indicator of hydration status because it reflects the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. An increased hematocrit indicates dehydration, as the blood becomes more concentrated due to fluid loss. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (Choice A) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation, not hydration status. White blood cell count (Choice B) is an indicator of infection or inflammation. Serum glucose (Choice D) is used to monitor blood sugar levels, not hydration status.

2. The client with chronic pancreatitis needs information on dietary modification to manage the health problem. The nurse teaches the client to limit which of the following items in the diet?

• A. Carbohydrate
• B. Protein
• C. Fat
• D. Water-soluble vitamins

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client should limit fat in the diet. The client also should take in small meals, which also will reduce the amount of carbohydrates and protein that the client must digest at any one time. The client does not need to limit water-soluble vitamins in the diet.

3. The nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with acute gastritis. Which medication, if noted on the client’s record, would the nurse question?

• A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• B. Indomethacin (Indocin)
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Indomethacin (Indocin) is an NSAID that can aggravate acute gastritis and should be questioned.

4. A client has been diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the stomach and is scheduled to undergo a subtotal gastrectomy (Billroth II procedure). During pre-operative teaching, the nurse is reinforcing information about the procedure. Which of the following explanations is most accurate?

• A. The procedure will result in enlargement of the pyloric sphincter
• B. The procedure will result in anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum
• C. The procedure will result in removal of the duodenum
• D. The procedure will result in repositioning of the vagus nerve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Billroth II procedure involves anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum.

5. You’re developing the plan of care for a patient experiencing dumping syndrome after a Billroth II procedure. Which dietary instructions do you include?

• A. Omit fluids with meals.
• B. Increase carbohydrate intake.
• C. Decrease protein intake.
• D. Decrease fat intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To manage dumping syndrome, it is important to omit fluids with meals to slow gastric emptying.

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