Nursing Elites

1. A home care nurse is visiting a client with a diagnosis of pernicious anemia that developed as a result of gastric surgery. The nurse instructs the client that because the stomach lining produces a decreased amount of intrinsic factor in this disorder, the client will need

• A. Vitamin B12 injections.
• B. Vitamin B6 injections.
• C. An antibiotic.
• D. An antacid.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A lack of the intrinsic factor needed to absorb vitamin B12 occurs in pernicious anemia. Vitamin B12 is needed for the maturation of red blood cells. Vitamin B6 is not necessarily needed for pernicious anemia and can be taken orally. An antibiotic and antacids may be prescribed for certain types of gastric ulcers.

2. A client has been taking aluminum hydroxide 30 mL six times per day at home to treat his peptic ulcer. He tells the nurse that he has been unable to have a bowel movement for 3 days. Based on this information, the nurse would determine that which of the following is the most likely cause of the client’s constipation?

• A. The client has not been including enough fiber in his diet
• B. The client needs to increase his daily exercise
• C. The client is experiencing a side effect of the aluminum hydroxide.
• D. The client has developed a gastrointestinal obstruction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is experiencing a common side effect of aluminum hydroxide, which is constipation.

3. Before administering an intermittent tube feeding through a nasogastric tube, the nurse assesses for gastric residual. The nurse understands that this procedure is important to

• A. Confirm proper nasogastric tube placement.
• B. Observe gastric contents.
• C. Assess fluid and electrolyte status.
• D. Evaluate absorption of the last feeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Evaluating the absorption of the last feeding is important because administration of a tube feeding to a full stomach could result in overdistention, thus predisposing the client to regurgitation and possible aspiration.

4. Michael, a 42 y.o. man is admitted to the med-surg floor with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. His BP is 136/76, pulse 96, Resps 22 and temp 101. His past history includes hyperlipidemia and alcohol abuse. The doctor prescribes an NG tube. Before inserting the tube, you explain the purpose to patient. Which of the following is a most accurate explanation?

• A. It empties the stomach of fluids and gas.
• B. It prevents spasms at the sphincter of Oddi.
• C. It prevents air from forming in the small intestine and large intestine.
• D. It removes bile from the gallbladder.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Explain to the patient that the NG tube is used to empty the stomach of fluids and gas, which helps relieve symptoms of acute pancreatitis.

5. A 30-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with complaints of severe abdominal cramping and diarrhea. The nurse evaluates the effectiveness of the patient's intravenous therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests BEST reflects hydration status?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
• B. White blood cell count.
• C. Hematocrit.
• D. Serum glucose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hematocrit is the best indicator of hydration status because it reflects the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. An increased hematocrit indicates dehydration, as the blood becomes more concentrated due to fluid loss. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (Choice A) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation, not hydration status. White blood cell count (Choice B) is an indicator of infection or inflammation. Serum glucose (Choice D) is used to monitor blood sugar levels, not hydration status.

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