Nursing Elites

1. Medical management of the client with diverticulitis should include which of the following treatments?

• A. Reduced fluid intake
• B. Increased fiber in diet
• C. Administration of antibiotics
• D. Exercises to increase intra-abdominal pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Medical management of diverticulitis typically includes the administration of antibiotics to treat infection and inflammation.

2. Your goal is to minimize David’s risk of complications after a heriorrhaphy. You instruct the patient to:

• A. Avoid the use of pain medication.
• B. Cough and deep breathe Q2H.
• C. Splint the incision if he can’t avoid sneezing or coughing.
• D. Apply heat to scrotal swelling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Instruct the patient to splint the incision if he can't avoid sneezing or coughing to minimize the risk of complications after heriorrhaphy.

3. Risk factors for the development of hiatal hernias are those that lead to increased abdominal pressure. Which of the following complications DOES NOT cause increased abdominal pressure?

• A. Obesity
• B. Volvulus
• C. Constipation
• D. Intestinal obstruction

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obesity, constipation, and intestinal obstruction can all lead to increased abdominal pressure, which in turn can cause a hiatal hernia.

4. The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of acute appendicitis. Which of the following laboratory results would the nurse expect to note if the client indeed has appendicitis?

• A. Leukopenia with a shift to the right
• B. Leukocytosis with a shift to the right
• C. Leukocytosis with a shift to the left
• D. Leukopenia with a shift to the left

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Laboratory findings do not establish the diagnosis of appendicitis, but often moderate elevation of the white blood cell count (leukocytosis) to 10,000 to 18,000 cells/mm3 occurs with a “shift to the left” (an increased number of immature white blood cells.).

5. A client has a nasogastric tube inserted at the time of abdominal perineal resection with permanent colostomy. This tube will most likely be removed when the client demonstrates:

• A. Absence of nausea and vomiting.
• B. Passage of mucus from the rectum.
• C. Passage of flatus and feces from the colostomy.
• D. Absence of stomach drainage for 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sign indicating that a client's colostomy is open and ready to function is passage of feces and flatus. When this occurs, gastric suction is ordinarily discontinued, and the client is allowed to start taking fluids and food orally. Absence of bowel sounds would indicate that the tube should remain in place because peristalsis has not yet returned. Absence of nausea and vomiting is not a criterion for judging whether or not gastric suction should be continued. Passage of mucus from the rectum will not occur in this client because the rectum is removed in this surgery. Absence of stomach drainage is not a criterion for judging whether or not gastric suction should be continued.

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