ATI RN
Nutrition ATI Proctored Exam
1. When is Prevident indicated?
- A. High caries risk
- B. Crown and bridge work
- C. Orthodontic decalcification
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.
2. Which of the four phases of emergency management is defined as 'sustained action that reduces or eliminates long-term risk to people and property from natural hazards and their effects'?
- A. Recovery
- B. Mitigation
- C. Response
- D. Preparedness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Mitigation.' Mitigation is the phase of emergency management that focuses on sustained actions aimed at reducing or eliminating long-term risks to people and property from natural hazards. Recovery (A) involves restoring and rebuilding infrastructure, housing, and services after a disaster. Response (C) deals with immediate actions taken to save lives and prevent further damage during a disaster. Preparedness (D) involves planning, training, and equipping organizations and communities to effectively respond to emergencies.
3. What is tocopherol?
- A. Vitamin B1
- B. Vitamin B2
- C. Vitamin B3
- D. Vitamin E
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Tocopherol is another name for Vitamin E, a fat-soluble antioxidant that helps protect cell membranes from oxidative damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as tocopherol is specifically related to Vitamin E and not Vitamin B1, B2, or B3.
4. A client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery is about to progress from a clear liquid diet to full liquids. Which of the following items should the nurse tell the client he may now request to have on his meal tray?
- A. Cranberry juice
- B. Flavored gelatin
- C. Skim milk
- D. Chicken broth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cranberry juice is an appropriate choice for a client transitioning from a clear liquid diet to full liquids post abdominal surgery. It provides hydration and some essential nutrients. Flavored gelatin is usually allowed on a clear liquid diet and may not be suitable for a full liquids phase. Skim milk and chicken broth are typically introduced in a later stage of the diet progression, closer to a soft diet, due to their higher protein and fat content.
5. Which strategy would most likely help alleviate some of the nausea that a 10-week pregnant woman experiences every morning, preventing her from eating breakfast?
- A. Increase intake of dairy products, including yogurt and ice cream
- B. Maintain an upright position while eating
- C. Opt for foods that are high in fiber
- D. Consume small, frequent meals when hunger strikes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Consume small, frequent meals when hunger strikes.' This strategy is ideal for managing morning sickness because it prevents the stomach from becoming too empty, which can exacerbate nausea. Option A may not be helpful because dairy products can sometimes worsen nausea. Option B is not the most effective solution as the sitting position does not directly impact nausea levels. Option C, while generally beneficial for digestion and overall health, does not specifically address the issue of pregnancy-related nausea.
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