Nursing Elites

1. When is Prevident indicated?

• A. High caries risk
• B. Crown and bridge work
• C. Orthodontic decalcification
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.

2. The stages of grieving identified by Elizabeth Kubler-Ross are:

• A. Numbness, anger, resolution and reorganization
• B. Denial, anger, identification, depression and acceptance
• C. Anger, loneliness, depression and resolution
• D. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

3. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely to cause bleeding disorders?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Vitamin E
• C. Vitamin K
• D. Vitamin D

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting as it plays a crucial role in the activation of clotting factors. Deficiency of Vitamin K can lead to impaired blood clotting, resulting in bleeding disorders. Vitamin A is more associated with vision and skin health, not blood clotting. Vitamin E is known for its antioxidant properties and role in immune function, not specifically related to bleeding disorders. Vitamin D plays a key role in calcium absorption and bone health, but it is not directly linked to blood clotting or bleeding disorders.

4. What gastrointestinal side effects are associated with antisecretory drugs such as proton pump inhibitors?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Gastroparesis
• C. Dumping syndrome
• D. Flatulence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are a type of antisecretory drug that can cause nausea and vomiting by altering stomach acid production. These are common side effects associated with PPIs. Gastroparesis (B) is a condition that affects the stomach muscles and prevents proper stomach emptying; it is not a side effect of PPIs. Dumping syndrome (C) is a group of symptoms that can occur after having part of your stomach removed and is not a side effect of PPIs. While some people might experience flatulence (D) when taking PPIs, it is not as commonly associated with these drugs as the effects of nausea and vomiting.

5. The mother of a drug dependent would never consider referring her son to a drug rehabilitation agency because she fears her son might just become worse while relating with other drug users. The mother’s behavior can be described as:

• A. Unhelpful
• B. Codependent
• C. Caretaking
• D. Supportive

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

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