Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been prescribed an estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive. The nurse should emphasize that the risk of thrombophlebitis is most likely in patients who:

• A. Are diabetic.
• B. Smoke cigarettes.
• C. Have a history of hypertension.
• D. Are older than 40.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smoke cigarettes. Smoking is a significant risk factor for thrombophlebitis, especially when combined with estrogen-progestin contraceptives. Choice A, being diabetic, does not directly increase the risk of thrombophlebitis in this context. Choice C, having a history of hypertension, is not a primary risk factor for thrombophlebitis. Choice D, being older than 40, is not the most likely factor associated with an increased risk of thrombophlebitis in patients taking estrogen-progestin oral contraceptives.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• B. Monitor oxygen saturation levels continuously.
• C. Administer intravenous antibiotics as prescribed.
• D. Provide respiratory therapy treatments as needed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering IV antibiotics is crucial for treating pneumonia in a client with COPD. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that requires prompt antibiotic therapy to prevent complications and improve outcomes. While bronchodilators may help with COPD symptoms, in the case of pneumonia, addressing the infection is the priority. Continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation is important, but administering antibiotics to treat the underlying infection takes precedence. Respiratory therapy treatments can be beneficial, but they are not the initial priority when managing pneumonia in a client with COPD.

3. What key contraindication should the nurse emphasize to a patient prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction?

• A. Sildenafil is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension.
• B. Sildenafil should not be taken with food as it can reduce its effectiveness.
• C. Sildenafil is contraindicated in patients with a history of hypertension.
• D. Sildenafil should not be taken with grapefruit juice as it can lead to dangerous side effects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sildenafil is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, leading to a synergistic effect that can result in a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no specific contraindication for taking sildenafil with food, having a history of hypertension, or taking it with grapefruit juice. The main concern is the concurrent use of nitrates with sildenafil.

4. A patient has suffered from several infections in the last 6 months and unexplained impaired wound healing. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Assess for pain.
• B. Assess for nutritional deficiencies.
• C. Assess genetic tendency for infection.
• D. Assess for edema and decreased hemoglobin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of multiple infections and impaired wound healing indicates a potential issue with their immune system and overall health. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Proper nutrition is essential for a healthy immune response and wound healing. Assessing for pain (choice A) may be important but addressing the root cause of the recurrent infections and impaired wound healing is crucial. Genetic tendency for infection (choice C) would be a less immediate concern compared to assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Edema and decreased hemoglobin (choice D) are not the most relevant assessments based on the patient's symptoms.

5. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:

• A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
• B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
• C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
• D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.

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