Nursing Elites

1. A patient with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing flashbacks. The most appropriate intervention is to:

• A. Encourage the patient to talk about the trauma.
• B. Help the patient reorient to the present.
• C. Leave the patient alone to process the flashback.
• D. Remind the patient that the flashback is not real.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient with PTSD is experiencing flashbacks, the most appropriate intervention is to help them reorient to the present. This intervention can assist in reducing the intensity of the flashback and providing a sense of safety for the patient. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the patient to talk about the trauma during a flashback may exacerbate their distress. Choice C is incorrect as leaving the patient alone can increase their feelings of isolation and fear. Choice D is incorrect because reminding the patient that the flashback is not real may invalidate their experience and increase their sense of disconnection.

2. A client is diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Encourage the client to express their feelings
• B. Teach the client relaxation techniques
• C. Promote regular physical activity
• D. Encourage the use of caffeine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Interventions for a client with GAD should include encouraging the client to express their feelings, teaching relaxation techniques, and promoting regular physical activity. Caffeine should be avoided as it can exacerbate anxiety symptoms. Stimulants like caffeine can increase feelings of restlessness and nervousness, making it counterproductive in managing anxiety. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate interventions for managing generalized anxiety disorder by promoting emotional expression, relaxation, and physical well-being, respectively. Choice D, encouraging the use of caffeine, is incorrect as it can worsen anxiety symptoms rather than alleviate them.

3. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

4. What information should the nurse include in patient education for a patient prescribed valproic acid for bipolar disorder?

• A. Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication.
• B. Regular blood tests are necessary to monitor medication levels.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption.
• D. It is safe to stop the medication abruptly if side effects occur.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regular blood tests are crucial when taking valproic acid to monitor the medication levels in the bloodstream. This monitoring helps ensure that the patient is receiving the correct dosage for effective treatment and to prevent adverse effects associated with either subtherapeutic or toxic levels of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between valproic acid and dairy products. Choice C is incorrect as valproic acid can generally be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping valproic acid can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition.

5. A client has been taking lithium for several years with good symptom control. The client presents in the emergency department with blurred vision, tinnitus, and severe diarrhea. Which lithium level should the nurse correlate with these symptoms?

• A. 3.7
• B. 1.7
• C. 2.6
• D. 1.3

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Symptoms such as blurred vision, tinnitus, and severe diarrhea are indicative of lithium toxicity. A lithium level of 1.7 is within the toxic range. When clients present with these symptoms, it is crucial for the nurse to correlate them with elevated lithium levels to ensure timely intervention and prevent further complications.

Similar Questions