ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. During an admission assessment and interview, which channels of information communication should the nurse be monitoring? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Auditory
- B. Visual
- C. Written
- D. Tactile
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During an admission assessment and interview, nurses should monitor auditory, visual, and tactile channels of communication. Written communication is not typically monitored during a face-to-face interview or assessment, making it the correct choice that doesn't apply in this scenario.
2. Why is the DSM-5 useful in the practice of psychiatric nursing?
- A. It guides the nurse in making accurate and reliable medical diagnoses.
- B. It represents progress toward a more holistic view of mind and body.
- C. It provides a framework for interdisciplinary communication.
- D. It provides a template for nursing care plans.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The DSM-5 is a crucial tool in psychiatric nursing as it guides nurses in making accurate and reliable medical diagnoses of mental health conditions. Using the DSM-5 ensures that diagnoses are standardized, improving the quality and precision of care for clients. While the DSM-5 also supports a holistic view, interdisciplinary communication, and care plan development, its primary role in psychiatric nursing is to assist clinicians in diagnosing mental health conditions accurately.
3. When evaluating a client's progress in psychotherapy, which outcome is appropriate for the client?
- A. The client will identify triggers for anxiety.
- B. The client will develop coping strategies.
- C. The client will decrease avoidance behaviors.
- D. The client will express feelings of anger.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In psychotherapy, identifying triggers for anxiety is a crucial step towards understanding and managing one's anxiety symptoms. By recognizing these triggers, clients can work on developing coping strategies and addressing the root cause of their anxiety, leading to improved mental health outcomes. Decreasing avoidance behaviors and expressing feelings of anger are also important aspects of therapy. However, identifying triggers for anxiety is a more specific and foundational goal in addressing anxiety disorders, making it the most appropriate outcome to evaluate a client's progress in psychotherapy.
4. Which characteristic identified during an assessment serves to support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Female
- B. 7 years old
- C. Comorbid autism diagnosis
- D. Outbursts occur at least once a week
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Characteristics such as age, frequency of outbursts, and occurrence in multiple settings support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. While comorbid conditions like autism can coexist with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, it is not a characteristic that serves to support a diagnosis of this specific disorder.
5. A client has been prescribed bupropion (Wellbutrin) for depression. Which instruction should the nurse provide during discharge?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Stop taking the medication if you feel better.
- C. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Double the dose if you miss a dose.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide is to advise the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking bupropion (Wellbutrin) due to the increased risk of side effects like seizures. Alcohol can interact with bupropion and worsen its side effects, making it important to abstain from alcohol consumption during the treatment. Option A is incorrect because taking the medication with a full glass of water is a general instruction for medications and not specific to bupropion. Option B is incorrect as abruptly stopping bupropion can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision. Option D is incorrect as doubling the dose of bupropion is dangerous and should not be done, even if a dose is missed.
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