Nursing Elites

1. What should be monitored when administering opioids to a patient?

• A. Monitor blood pressure
• B. Monitor respiratory rate
• C. Monitor heart rate
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering opioids, monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory depression, which is a serious side effect of opioid use. Monitoring blood pressure, heart rate, and oxygen saturation are important parameters to assess a patient's overall condition, but they are not the primary focus when administering opioids.

2. A client who has a positive stool culture for Clostridium difficile should be placed in which type of room for infection control purposes?

• A. Wear a face shield prior to entering the room.
• B. Place the client in a private room.
• C. Place the client in a negative pressure room.
• D. Use an alcohol-based hand rub following client care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the client in a private room is the appropriate infection control measure for C. difficile to prevent the spread of infection. While wearing a face shield may be necessary for procedures that generate splashes or sprays, it is not the primary precaution for C. difficile. Negative pressure rooms are typically used for airborne infections, not for C. difficile. Using an alcohol-based hand rub is important for hand hygiene but is not specific to managing C. difficile infection.

3. A nurse is caring for a client in labor who is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse notes early decelerations. Which of the following should the nurse expect?

• A. Fetal hypoxia
• B. Abruptio placentae
• C. Post maturity
• D. Head compression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a nurse notes early decelerations in electronic fetal monitoring, it indicates head compression, which is generally considered benign and not associated with fetal hypoxia, abruptio placentae, or post maturity. Early decelerations mirror the uterine contractions and are a normal response to fetal head compression during labor.

4. A client receiving morphine via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) should have naloxone administered if their respiratory rate is below 10/min. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 4 hours.
• B. Ask the client to rate their pain every 2 hours.
• C. Administer naloxone if the client's respiratory rate is below 10/min.
• D. Evaluate the client's use of the PCA every 4 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer naloxone if the client's respiratory rate falls below 10/min. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a life-threatening situation. Monitoring the client's blood pressure every 4 hours (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario as respiratory depression requires immediate attention. Asking the client to rate their pain every 2 hours (Choice B) is important for pain management but addressing respiratory depression takes precedence. Evaluating the client's use of the PCA every 4 hours (Choice D) is a routine nursing intervention but does not directly address the urgent need to reverse respiratory depression in this case.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

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