ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer. Which of the following skin care instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Wear loose clothing over the radiation site.
- B. Use scented lotions to moisturize the skin.
- C. Apply ice packs to the radiation site for pain relief.
- D. Expose the radiation site to sunlight for 20 minutes daily.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wear loose clothing over the radiation site. Clients receiving radiation therapy should wear loose clothing over the treatment area to prevent irritation and promote healing. Choice B is incorrect as scented lotions can irritate the skin during radiation therapy. Choice C is incorrect because ice packs should not be applied to the radiation site as they can exacerbate skin reactions. Choice D is incorrect as exposing the radiation site to sunlight can increase skin damage and should be avoided.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer sodium bicarbonate
- B. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate
- C. Administer calcium gluconate
- D. Administer calcium carbonate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate. This medication promotes potassium excretion and helps lower serum potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia, which is indicated by a high potassium level. Sodium bicarbonate (choice A) is not used to treat hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate (choice C) and calcium carbonate (choice D) are used to manage hyperkalemia by stabilizing cell membranes but are not the initial treatment choice for lowering potassium levels.
3. A nurse in a pediatric clinic is reviewing the laboratory test results of a school-age child. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Hgb 12.5 g/dL.
- B. Platelets 250,000/mm³.
- C. Hct 40%.
- D. WBC 14,000/mm³.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A WBC count of 14,000/mm³ is elevated, indicating a potential infection or inflammation, and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting as they indicate normal hemoglobin, platelet count, and hematocrit levels for a school-age child.
4. Which medication is commonly prescribed for a patient with a history of heart failure?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Metoprolol
- C. Digoxin
- D. Aspirin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is the correct answer. It is a common diuretic used in patients with heart failure to reduce fluid overload. Metoprolol (Choice B) is a beta-blocker often prescribed to manage heart failure symptoms by improving heart function. Digoxin (Choice C) is used in heart failure patients to help the heart beat stronger and with a more regular rhythm. Aspirin (Choice D) is not typically prescribed for heart failure but may be used in patients with heart disease for its antiplatelet effects.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication history of a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional identify as a contraindication for this client?
- A. Acetaminophen
- B. Ibuprofen
- C. Clopidogrel
- D. Metoprolol
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin. Acetaminophen (choice A) and metoprolol (choice D) do not have significant interactions with warfarin. Ibuprofen (choice B) is an NSAID that can also increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, but clopidogrel is a more significant contraindication due to its antiplatelet effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be cautious when combining warfarin with clopidogrel due to the increased risk of bleeding compared to other options.
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