Nursing Elites

1. What should the nurse monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Monitor for muscle weakness
• B. Check deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)
• C. Monitor for seizures
• D. Monitor for bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for muscle weakness in a patient with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Checking deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia. Seizures (Choice C) are more commonly associated with low calcium levels rather than low potassium levels. Bradycardia (Choice D) is a symptom of hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) rather than hypokalemia.

2. A nurse is administering insulin to a patient after misreading their glucose as 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor for hypoglycemia
• B. Monitor for hyperkalemia
• C. Administer glucose IV
• D. Document the incident

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. Insulin administration based on a misread glucose level can lead to hypoglycemia due to the unnecessary lowering of blood sugar levels. Monitoring for hypoglycemia involves assessing the patient's blood glucose levels frequently, observing for signs and symptoms such as shakiness, confusion, sweating, and administering glucose if hypoglycemia occurs. Choice B, monitoring for hyperkalemia, is incorrect as insulin administration typically lowers potassium levels. Choice C, administering glucose IV, is not the immediate action needed as the patient could potentially develop hypoglycemia from the excess insulin. Choice D, documenting the incident, is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with a potential hypoglycemic event.

3. What is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
• B. White blood cell count 4,500/mm3
• C. Potassium levels 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin levels below 12g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV to assess the status of their immune system. A CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and a high risk of opportunistic infections. This value is used to guide treatment decisions and assess the need for prophylaxis against specific infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring white blood cell count, potassium levels, and hemoglobin levels, although important in HIV patients, are not as crucial as monitoring the CD4 T-cell count for assessing immune function and disease progression.

4. What is an escharotomy and when is it performed?

• A. A surgical incision to release pressure in burn injuries
• B. A procedure to remove dead tissue from wounds
• C. An incision to improve circulation in tight skin after burns
• D. A procedure to remove excess fluid from the chest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical incision made to release pressure in a part of the body that has a deep burn and excessive swelling. This procedure is crucial in preventing further damage due to restricted blood flow and compromised circulation. Choice B is incorrect because it describes debridement, which is the removal of dead tissue from wounds. Choice C is incorrect as it does not specifically address the purpose of relieving pressure in burn injuries. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a procedure more related to thoracentesis, which is the removal of excess fluid from the chest, typically the pleural space.

5. What signs indicate increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?

• A. Restlessness, irritability, and confusion
• B. Sudden onset of seizures
• C. Bradycardia and altered pupil response
• D. Loss of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Restlessness, irritability, and confusion are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP). These symptoms occur due to the brain's increased pressure within the skull. Sudden onset of seizures (Choice B) is not typically associated with increased intracranial pressure. Bradycardia and altered pupil response (Choice C) are signs of advanced or worsening IICP. Loss of consciousness (Choice D) is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure.

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