what should the nurse monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

1. What should the nurse monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?

A. Monitor for muscle weakness
B. Check deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)
C. Monitor for seizures
D. Monitor for bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for muscle weakness in a patient with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Checking deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia. Seizures (Choice C) are more commonly associated with low calcium levels rather than low potassium levels. Bradycardia (Choice D) is a symptom of hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) rather than hypokalemia.

2. A patient diagnosed with hypokalemia is at risk for which condition?

A. Cardiac dysrhythmias
B. Muscle weakness
C. Seizures
D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients diagnosed with hypokalemia are at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias due to low potassium levels. Hypokalemia can lead to abnormalities in the electrical conduction system of the heart, potentially causing irregular heart rhythms. Muscle weakness (Choice B) is a symptom commonly associated with hypokalemia, but the question asks about conditions the patient is at risk for, not specific symptoms. Seizures (Choice C) are not typically associated with hypokalemia; they are more commonly linked with conditions such as epilepsy. Bradycardia (Choice D) refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a typical risk associated with hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly observed in patients with low potassium levels.

3. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. White blood cell count
C. Serum albumin levels
D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in HIV management. While white blood cell count, serum albumin levels, and hemoglobin levels are important, they do not directly reflect the immune status and progression of HIV as the CD4 T-cell count does.

4. What medication should be administered first for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

A. Albuterol via nebulizer
B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
C. Methylprednisolone IV
D. Aminophylline IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction because it quickly opens the airways by relaxing the muscles around the airways. Cromolyn (choice B) is used more for prevention rather than immediate relief of symptoms. Methylprednisolone (choice C) and Aminophylline (choice D) are not the first-line treatments for acute wheezing due to an allergic reaction.

5. A patient who experienced an acute episode of gastritis should avoid which type of foods?

A. Avoid foods high in potassium
B. Avoid foods high in sodium
C. Increase exercise
D. Drink milk as a snack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients who have experienced an acute episode of gastritis should avoid foods high in potassium. Potassium-rich foods can irritate the gastric lining, exacerbating gastritis symptoms. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in sodium is beneficial for other health conditions like hypertension, increasing exercise is generally good for overall health but not specifically for gastritis management, and drinking milk may provide temporary relief for some but is not a definitive recommendation for gastritis management.