what should the nurse monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

1. What should the nurse monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?

A. Monitor for muscle weakness
B. Check deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)
C. Monitor for seizures
D. Monitor for bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for muscle weakness in a patient with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Checking deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia. Seizures (Choice C) are more commonly associated with low calcium levels rather than low potassium levels. Bradycardia (Choice D) is a symptom of hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) rather than hypokalemia.

2. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient admitted with possible acute coronary syndrome?

A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Obtain cardiac enzymes
C. Get IV access
D. Auscultate heart sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This intervention is a priority for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome because nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, increase blood flow to the heart muscle, relieve chest pain, and reduce cardiac workload. Obtaining cardiac enzymes (choice B) is important for diagnosing myocardial infarction but is not the initial priority. Getting IV access (choice C) is essential for medication administration and fluid resuscitation but is not the priority over administering nitroglycerin. Auscultating heart sounds (choice D) is a routine assessment but does not address the immediate need to relieve chest pain and improve blood flow to the heart in acute coronary syndrome.

3. What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
B. Increase sodium intake
C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
D. Eat three large meals per day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excess phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys are not able to remove it effectively. Choice B is incorrect as increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for individuals with kidney disease due to its association with high blood pressure. Choice C is also incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation for patients with advanced kidney disease, but the range provided is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day may not be suitable for managing the condition.

4. What is the purpose of an escharotomy in burn management?

A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
B. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
C. To prevent infection in burn injuries
D. To remove excess fluid from burn wounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure in areas affected by deep burns and improve circulation. This procedure involves making incisions through the eschar (burned and dead tissue) to release constricting tissue and allow for the return of blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of necrotic tissue is typically done through debridement, not escharotomy. Choice C is incorrect because preventing infection in burn injuries is usually achieved through proper wound care and antibiotic therapy, not escharotomy. Choice D is incorrect because removing excess fluid from burn wounds is managed through methods like fluid resuscitation and monitoring, not escharotomy.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig's sign?

A. After stroking the lateral area of the foot, the client's toes contract and draw together
B. After hip flexion, the client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain
C. The client's voluntary movement is not coordinated
D. The client reports pain and stiffness when flexing their neck

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive Kernig's sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding suggests meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig's sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, Choice C refers to coordination deficits, and Choice D indicates neck pain and stiffness, which are not related to Kernig's sign.