a nurse is planning care for a group of postoperative clients which of the following interventions should the nurse identify as the priority

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is planning care for a group of postoperative clients. Which of the following interventions should the nurse identify as the priority?

A. Administer IV pain medication to a client who reports pain as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
B. Administer oxygen to a client who has an oxygen saturation of 91%
C. Instruct a client who is 1 hr postoperative about coughing and deep breathing exercises
D. Initiate an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride for a client who has just had abdominal surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention is administering oxygen. Postoperatively, the client's oxygen saturation should be at or above 95%. Oxygen is essential for tissue perfusion and cellular oxygenation. While managing pain is important, oxygenation takes precedence. Instructing a client about coughing and deep breathing exercises is important for preventing respiratory complications but is not as urgent as addressing low oxygen saturation. Initiating an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride is a routine postoperative intervention for fluid balance but is not the priority when oxygen saturation is low.

2. What dietary recommendations should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
B. Increase sodium intake
C. Increase protein intake
D. Increase potassium intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications in such patients. Increasing sodium intake (Choice B) is generally not recommended due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention. While protein is essential, increasing protein intake (Choice C) in kidney disease can be harmful as it can lead to increased waste products that the kidneys may struggle to excrete. Increasing potassium intake (Choice D) is not advisable as well, as patients with kidney disease may already have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia.

3. What teaching should be provided to a patient after cataract surgery?

A. Avoid NSAIDs
B. Avoid bright lights
C. Wear dark glasses while outdoors
D. Use warm compresses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching to provide to a patient after cataract surgery is to avoid NSAIDs. NSAIDs should be avoided to reduce the risk of bleeding post-surgery. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to post-cataract surgery care. Avoiding bright lights and wearing dark glasses while outdoors may be beneficial for eye comfort but are not specific postoperative instructions. Using warm compresses is also not a standard teaching after cataract surgery.

4. What ECG changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves and prominent U waves
B. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes
C. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes
D. Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves and prominent U waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in potassium levels, which can lead to ECG changes such as flattened T waves and prominent U waves. These changes are classic findings associated with hypokalemia. Choices B (Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes), C (Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes), and D (Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude) are all incorrect. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes, as well as widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude, do not represent the typical ECG changes seen in hypokalemia.

5. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. Hemoglobin levels
C. Serum albumin levels
D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. In a patient with HIV, monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and risk of opportunistic infections. Hemoglobin levels (choice B) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect the immune status in HIV patients. Serum albumin levels (choice C) are indicators of nutritional status and inflammation, not specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) may fluctuate due to various conditions and is not as specific as the CD4 T-cell count in assessing HIV progression.