a nurse is planning care for a group of postoperative clients which of the following interventions should the nurse identify as the priority
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is planning care for a group of postoperative clients. Which of the following interventions should the nurse identify as the priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention is administering oxygen. Postoperatively, the client's oxygen saturation should be at or above 95%. Oxygen is essential for tissue perfusion and cellular oxygenation. While managing pain is important, oxygenation takes precedence. Instructing a client about coughing and deep breathing exercises is important for preventing respiratory complications but is not as urgent as addressing low oxygen saturation. Initiating an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride is a routine postoperative intervention for fluid balance but is not the priority when oxygen saturation is low.

2. What is a typical symptom of a hemorrhagic stroke in a patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A sudden, severe headache is a common symptom of a hemorrhagic stroke due to brain bleeding. This headache is often described as the worst headache of one's life. Gradual onset of numbness (choice B) is more characteristic of an ischemic stroke, where a blood clot blocks an artery in the brain. Loss of consciousness (choice C) can occur in severe cases of stroke but is not specific to hemorrhagic strokes. Loss of speech ability (choice D) is more associated with ischemic strokes affecting language centers of the brain.

3. What symptoms are expected in a patient with compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with compartment syndrome, the key symptoms include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms indicate reduced circulation in the affected compartment. Choice B is incorrect as localized swelling and numbness are not typically associated with compartment syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as fever and infection are not primary symptoms of compartment syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as weakness and fatigue are not typically seen in compartment syndrome.

4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Low fat diet. A low-fat diet is recommended for clients with chronic cholecystitis to reduce episodes of biliary colic. High-fat foods can trigger symptoms by causing the gallbladder to contract, leading to pain. Choice A, a low potassium diet, is not specifically indicated for chronic cholecystitis. Choice B, a high fiber diet, though generally healthy, may worsen symptoms in some individuals with cholecystitis due to the increased intestinal gas production. Choice D, a low sodium diet, is not directly related to the management of chronic cholecystitis.

5. What is a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. When potassium levels are low, it can lead to changes in the ECG, such as T wave flattening. This alteration is important to recognize as it indicates potential electrolyte imbalances. ST elevation (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Widened QRS complex (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like hyperkalemia.

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