Nursing Elites

1. What ECG changes are expected in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Widened QRS complexes
• D. Tall T waves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily presents with flattened T waves, not prominent U waves, widened QRS complexes, or tall T waves. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia only in severe cases. Widened QRS complexes are more indicative of hyperkalemia, while tall T waves are seen in hyperkalemia as well.

2. A patient has been diagnosed with a thrombotic stroke. What are the expected manifestations?

• A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
• B. Sudden loss of consciousness
• C. Seizures and confusion
• D. Loss of sensation in the affected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Gradual loss of function on one side of the body.' Thrombotic strokes lead to slow and progressive symptoms as a result of decreased blood flow to a specific area of the brain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, seizures, confusion, and loss of sensation in the affected limb are not typical manifestations of a thrombotic stroke.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and is receiving 3% sodium chloride via continuous IV. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the SIADH is resolving?

• A. Urine specific gravity 1.020
• B. Sodium 119 mEq/L
• C. BUN 8 mg/dL
• D. Calcium 8.7 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.020 is within the expected reference range and indicates that the kidneys are appropriately concentrating urine, which is a sign that the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is resolving. A low sodium level (choice B) is associated with SIADH, so a sodium level of 119 mEq/L is not indicative of resolution. BUN (choice C) and calcium levels (choice D) are typically not directly related to SIADH resolution.

4. What are the expected signs of compartment syndrome?

• A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
• B. Fever, swelling, and redness
• C. Muscle cramps and weakness
• D. Redness and itching

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. Compartment syndrome is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to inadequate blood supply. This results in severe pain that is unrelieved by rest or medication, pallor due to compromised blood flow, and pulselessness as a late sign of severe ischemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fever, swelling, and redness are not typical signs of compartment syndrome. Muscle cramps and weakness may occur due to other conditions, but they are not primary indicators of compartment syndrome. Redness and itching are also not commonly associated with compartment syndrome.

5. What is the priority intervention when a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

• A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
• B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
• C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
• D. Increase the flow of the enema solution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to lower the height of the enema solution container. This action can help relieve abdominal cramping by slowing the flow of the enema, reducing discomfort for the patient. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is not the priority as adjusting the height of the container can often resolve the issue without needing to stop the procedure completely. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, may not address the immediate discomfort experienced by the patient. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, can exacerbate the cramping and should be avoided.

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