Nursing Elites

1. What ECG changes are expected in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Widened QRS complexes
• D. Tall T waves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily presents with flattened T waves, not prominent U waves, widened QRS complexes, or tall T waves. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia only in severe cases. Widened QRS complexes are more indicative of hyperkalemia, while tall T waves are seen in hyperkalemia as well.

2. What adverse effect might occur in a patient receiving radiation after a mastectomy?

• A. Seizures
• B. JVD and fatigue
• C. SOB and JVD
• D. S3 heart sound

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct adverse effect that might occur in a patient receiving radiation after a mastectomy is the development of an S3 heart sound. This can result from decreased pumping ability following mastectomy and radiation treatment. Choice A, seizures, is incorrect as seizures are not a common adverse effect of radiation after a mastectomy. Choice B, JVD and fatigue, is incorrect as while fatigue can be a common side effect, JVD (Jugular Venous Distention) is not typically associated with radiation after a mastectomy. Choice C, SOB (Shortness of Breath) and JVD, is incorrect as while shortness of breath can occur, JVD is not a typical adverse effect of radiation post-mastectomy.

3. A patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse needs electrical intervention. What is the appropriate action?

• A. Defibrillation
• B. Synchronized cardioversion
• C. Pacing
• D. Medication administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse, the appropriate action is synchronized cardioversion. Defibrillation is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing is typically used for bradycardias. Medication administration may be considered in stable ventricular tachycardia cases but electrical intervention is preferred for immediate correction in this scenario.

4. A nurse is planning care for a patient diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. What should be included in the care plan?

• A. Monitor serum albumin levels
• B. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
• C. Encourage the patient to increase fluid intake
• D. Teach the patient to avoid alcohol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum albumin levels. In patients with diabetes insipidus, monitoring serum albumin levels is essential to assess for dehydration and nutritional deficits. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus. Restricting protein intake, encouraging fluid intake, and teaching the patient to avoid alcohol are interventions that may be relevant for other medical conditions but are not specific to addressing the needs of a patient with diabetes insipidus.

5. What is the most likely cause of continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube?

• A. An air leak
• B. A blockage in the chest tube
• C. Normal chest tube function
• D. Drainage from the chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube usually indicates an air leak. An air leak can disrupt the negative pressure required for the chest tube to function properly, leading to inadequate drainage and potential complications. A blockage in the chest tube would typically result in decreased or absent drainage rather than continuous bubbling. Normal chest tube function does not involve continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. Drainage from the chest tube may lead to fluid moving into the drainage system, but it would not cause continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.

Similar Questions