Nursing Elites

1. What ECG changes are expected in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Widened QRS complexes
• D. Tall T waves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily presents with flattened T waves, not prominent U waves, widened QRS complexes, or tall T waves. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia only in severe cases. Widened QRS complexes are more indicative of hyperkalemia, while tall T waves are seen in hyperkalemia as well.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?

• A. Low potassium diet
• B. High fiber diet
• C. Low fat diet
• D. Low sodium diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Low fat diet. A low-fat diet is recommended for clients with chronic cholecystitis to reduce episodes of biliary colic. High-fat foods can trigger symptoms by causing the gallbladder to contract, leading to pain. Choice A, a low potassium diet, is not specifically indicated for chronic cholecystitis. Choice B, a high fiber diet, though generally healthy, may worsen symptoms in some individuals with cholecystitis due to the increased intestinal gas production. Choice D, a low sodium diet, is not directly related to the management of chronic cholecystitis.

3. What are the common manifestations of compartment syndrome?

• A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, pulselessness
• B. Redness and swelling
• C. Fever and infection
• D. Swelling and redness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct manifestations of compartment syndrome are unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms indicate compromised blood flow and neurovascular compromise, necessitating immediate medical intervention. Redness and swelling (Choice B) are more commonly associated with inflammation or infection rather than compartment syndrome. Fever and infection (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Swelling and redness (Choice D) are general signs that can be seen in various conditions and are not specific to compartment syndrome.

4. While administering a blood transfusion, a nurse suspects that the client is having an adverse reaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Maintain IV access
• B. Obtain the client's vital signs
• C. Contact the provider
• D. Stop the transfusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when suspecting an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion is to stop the transfusion immediately. Stopping the transfusion helps prevent further harm to the client. Maintaining IV access and obtaining vital signs are important steps but come after stopping the transfusion in this situation. Contacting the provider can be done after ensuring the client's safety by stopping the transfusion.

5. A client is being taught about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for colorectal cancer screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Your provider will use a stool sample obtained during a digital rectal examination to perform the test.
• B. Your provider will recommend a stimulant laxative before the test to empty the bowel.
• C. You should start annual fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at the age of 40.
• D. You should avoid corticosteroids before the test.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should advise the client to avoid corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications, and vitamin C before fecal occult blood testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect as stool samples for FOBT are usually collected using a kit at home. Choice B is incorrect because stimulant laxatives are not typically used before FOBT. Choice C is incorrect as guidelines recommend starting colorectal cancer screening at the age of 50, not 40.

Similar Questions