Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Lidocaine
• B. Adenosine
• C. Atropine
• D. Verapamil

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atropine. The client's presentation of bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain indicates reduced cardiac output, requiring intervention to increase the heart rate. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia by blocking cardiac muscarinic receptors, thus inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine (Choice A) is used for ventricular arrhythmias, not bradycardia. Adenosine (Choice B) is used for supraventricular tachycardia, not bradycardia. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for certain arrhythmias and hypertension, but not for increasing heart rate in bradycardia.

2. What adverse effect might occur in a patient receiving radiation after a mastectomy?

• A. Seizures
• B. JVD and fatigue
• C. SOB and JVD
• D. S3 heart sound

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct adverse effect that might occur in a patient receiving radiation after a mastectomy is the development of an S3 heart sound. This can result from decreased pumping ability following mastectomy and radiation treatment. Choice A, seizures, is incorrect as seizures are not a common adverse effect of radiation after a mastectomy. Choice B, JVD and fatigue, is incorrect as while fatigue can be a common side effect, JVD (Jugular Venous Distention) is not typically associated with radiation after a mastectomy. Choice C, SOB (Shortness of Breath) and JVD, is incorrect as while shortness of breath can occur, JVD is not a typical adverse effect of radiation post-mastectomy.

3. What is the expected finding in a patient with compartment syndrome?

• A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
• B. Localized swelling and redness
• C. Numbness and tingling
• D. Fever and infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with compartment syndrome, the expected finding includes unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These are classic signs of compartment syndrome and indicate compromised blood flow and tissue perfusion, necessitating urgent intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because localized swelling and redness, numbness and tingling, as well as fever and infection, are not typical findings associated with compartment syndrome.

4. A client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia should increase the consumption of which of the following foods?

• A. Yogurt
• B. Apples
• C. Raisins
• D. Cheddar cheese

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, making them beneficial for a client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A), apples (Choice B), and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. Other iron-rich foods include dried fruits, red meat, and green leafy vegetables.

5. What is the purpose of an escharotomy in burn management?

• A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
• B. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
• C. To prevent infection in burn injuries
• D. To remove excess fluid from burn wounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure in areas affected by deep burns and improve circulation. This procedure involves making incisions through the eschar (burned and dead tissue) to release constricting tissue and allow for the return of blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of necrotic tissue is typically done through debridement, not escharotomy. Choice C is incorrect because preventing infection in burn injuries is usually achieved through proper wound care and antibiotic therapy, not escharotomy. Choice D is incorrect because removing excess fluid from burn wounds is managed through methods like fluid resuscitation and monitoring, not escharotomy.

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