Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Lidocaine
• B. Adenosine
• C. Atropine
• D. Verapamil

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atropine. The client's presentation of bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain indicates reduced cardiac output, requiring intervention to increase the heart rate. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia by blocking cardiac muscarinic receptors, thus inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine (Choice A) is used for ventricular arrhythmias, not bradycardia. Adenosine (Choice B) is used for supraventricular tachycardia, not bradycardia. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for certain arrhythmias and hypertension, but not for increasing heart rate in bradycardia.

2. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
• B. Albumin levels below 3.5 g/dL
• C. Potassium levels below 3.5 mEq/L
• D. White blood cell count below 5000/mm3

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.

3. What are the characteristics of a thrombotic stroke?

• A. Gradual onset over minutes to hours
• B. Numbness on one side of the body
• C. Associated with a loss of consciousness
• D. Associated with seizures and convulsions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Thrombotic strokes typically have a gradual onset over minutes to hours as they result from a clot obstructing blood flow. Choice B, numbness on one side of the body, is more commonly associated with an ischemic stroke rather than specifically a thrombotic stroke. Choice C, loss of consciousness, is not a defining characteristic of a thrombotic stroke. Choice D, seizures and convulsions, are more commonly seen in hemorrhagic strokes rather than thrombotic strokes.

4. What dietary recommendations should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase sodium intake
• C. Increase protein intake
• D. Increase potassium intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications in such patients. Increasing sodium intake (Choice B) is generally not recommended due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention. While protein is essential, increasing protein intake (Choice C) in kidney disease can be harmful as it can lead to increased waste products that the kidneys may struggle to excrete. Increasing potassium intake (Choice D) is not advisable as well, as patients with kidney disease may already have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia.

5. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?

• A. Increased risk of infection
• B. Increased risk of bleeding
• C. Decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections
• D. Increased risk of cardiac complications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.

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