what dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with pre dialysis end stage kidney disease

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

1. What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
B. Increase sodium intake
C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
D. Eat three large meals per day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excess phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys are not able to remove it effectively. Choice B is incorrect as increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for individuals with kidney disease due to its association with high blood pressure. Choice C is also incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation for patients with advanced kidney disease, but the range provided is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day may not be suitable for managing the condition.

2. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. White blood cell count
C. Serum albumin levels
D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in HIV management. While white blood cell count, serum albumin levels, and hemoglobin levels are important, they do not directly reflect the immune status and progression of HIV as the CD4 T-cell count does.

3. When caring for a patient with hypokalemia, what should the nurse monitor for?

A. Monitor for muscle weakness
B. Check for cardiac dysrhythmias
C. Monitor for bradycardia
D. Monitor for seizures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Answer: Muscle weakness is a common sign of hypokalemia. The nurse should monitor for muscle weakness as potassium plays a crucial role in muscle function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although hypokalemia can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, bradycardia, and even seizures in severe cases, muscle weakness is a more common and specific sign directly related to potassium levels.

4. What are the expected ECG findings in hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves
B. Prominent U waves
C. Elevated ST segments
D. Wide QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are the classic ECG finding in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia primarily affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to T wave abnormalities. While prominent U waves are typically associated with hypokalemia as well, flattened T waves are the most specific and sensitive ECG abnormality seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia and are more indicative of other electrolyte imbalances or cardiac conditions.

5. What adverse effect might occur in a patient receiving radiation after a mastectomy?

A. Seizures
B. JVD and fatigue
C. SOB and JVD
D. S3 heart sound

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct adverse effect that might occur in a patient receiving radiation after a mastectomy is the development of an S3 heart sound. This can result from decreased pumping ability following mastectomy and radiation treatment. Choice A, seizures, is incorrect as seizures are not a common adverse effect of radiation after a mastectomy. Choice B, JVD and fatigue, is incorrect as while fatigue can be a common side effect, JVD (Jugular Venous Distention) is not typically associated with radiation after a mastectomy. Choice C, SOB (Shortness of Breath) and JVD, is incorrect as while shortness of breath can occur, JVD is not a typical adverse effect of radiation post-mastectomy.