Nursing Elites

1. What should the nurse do for a patient experiencing abdominal cramping during enema administration?

• A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
• B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
• C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
• D. Increase the flow of the enema solution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. This action helps relieve the cramping by slowing down the flow of the solution. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is incorrect as it is too drastic and may not address the cramping. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, may exacerbate the cramping if the flow rate is still too high. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, would worsen the cramping and is not the appropriate intervention.

2. What dietary teaching should be provided to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase protein intake to 1.5 g/kg/day
• C. Restrict sodium intake to 1 g/day
• D. Increase potassium intake to 3 g/day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excess phosphorus can lead to complications such as bone and heart issues in these patients. Increasing protein intake (Choice B) is generally not recommended as it can lead to increased waste production that the kidneys may struggle to eliminate. Restricting sodium intake (Choice C) is important for managing blood pressure, but the recommendation is usually higher than 1 g/day. Increasing potassium intake (Choice D) is not typically advised in patients with kidney disease, as they often need to limit potassium due to impaired kidney function.

3. A nurse misreads a glucose level and administers insulin for a blood glucose of 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL. What is the priority intervention?

• A. Monitor for hypoglycemia
• B. Monitor for hyperkalemia
• C. Administer glucose IV
• D. Document the incident

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. In this scenario, the nurse administered insulin based on a misread glucose level, which could lead to hypoglycemia due to excessive insulin action lowering blood glucose levels. Monitoring for hypoglycemia allows for prompt recognition and intervention if blood glucose levels drop significantly. Choice B, monitoring for hyperkalemia, is incorrect as administering insulin would not cause hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering glucose IV, is not appropriate at this time since the patient's blood glucose level is already elevated. Choice D, documenting the incident, is important but not the priority at this moment when patient safety is at risk due to potential hypoglycemia.

4. What adverse effect might occur in a patient receiving radiation after a mastectomy?

• A. Seizures
• B. JVD and fatigue
• C. SOB and JVD
• D. S3 heart sound

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct adverse effect that might occur in a patient receiving radiation after a mastectomy is the development of an S3 heart sound. This can result from decreased pumping ability following mastectomy and radiation treatment. Choice A, seizures, is incorrect as seizures are not a common adverse effect of radiation after a mastectomy. Choice B, JVD and fatigue, is incorrect as while fatigue can be a common side effect, JVD (Jugular Venous Distention) is not typically associated with radiation after a mastectomy. Choice C, SOB (Shortness of Breath) and JVD, is incorrect as while shortness of breath can occur, JVD is not a typical adverse effect of radiation post-mastectomy.

5. What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Serum albumin levels
• C. Hemoglobin levels
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.

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