ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What should a healthcare professional monitor in a patient receiving insulin who is at risk for hypoglycemia?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels
- B. Monitor for respiratory distress
- C. Monitor for muscle weakness
- D. Monitor for hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in patients receiving insulin who are at risk for hypoglycemia. Insulin can lower blood sugar levels, potentially leading to hypoglycemia, which can be harmful if not promptly recognized and managed. Checking blood glucose levels allows for early detection of low blood sugar levels, enabling timely interventions to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to monitoring for hypoglycemia in patients receiving insulin.
2. What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?
- A. An air leak
- B. A blockage in the chest tube
- C. Normal chest tube function
- D. Malfunction in the drainage system
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the chest tube system. This bubbling occurs when air is escaping through the tube and entering the water seal chamber. Choice B, a blockage in the chest tube, is incorrect as continuous bubbling does not suggest a blockage. Choice C, normal chest tube function, is incorrect because continuous bubbling is not an expected finding in a properly functioning chest tube. Choice D, a malfunction in the drainage system, is incorrect as continuous bubbling specifically points towards an air leak, not a general malfunction.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has COPD about nutrition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Eat three large meals daily
- B. Consume high-calorie foods
- C. Limit caffeinated drinks to two per day
- D. Drink fluids during meal time
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Consume high-calorie foods.' Clients with COPD often have increased energy needs due to the work of breathing. Consuming high-calorie, high-protein foods can help provide the necessary energy and prevent weight loss. Choice A is incorrect because eating three large meals daily may lead to increased shortness of breath due to a full stomach putting pressure on the diaphragm. Choice C is incorrect because caffeinated drinks can contribute to dehydration, which is not ideal for clients with COPD. Choice D is incorrect because drinking fluids during mealtime can cause bloating and early satiety, making it difficult for clients to consume enough calories.
4. What are the expected ECG changes in hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. ST elevation
- C. Wide QRS complex
- D. Tall T waves
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are the most common ECG change seen in patients with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia leads to a decrease in serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. This results in T wave flattening or inversion. ST elevation is typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Wide QRS complex is more associated with hyperkalemia than hypokalemia. Tall T waves are often seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.
5. What should be monitored in a patient receiving insulin who is at risk for hypoglycemia?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels
- B. Monitor for respiratory distress
- C. Monitor for hypertension
- D. Monitor for hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: In a patient receiving insulin who is at risk for hypoglycemia, monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial. This helps in preventing and identifying hypoglycemia promptly. Choice B, monitoring for respiratory distress, is not directly related to hypoglycemia caused by insulin. Choice C, monitoring for hypertension, is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Choice D, monitoring for hyperkalemia, is not a common concern in patients receiving insulin who are at risk for hypoglycemia.
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