Nursing Elites

1. What should a healthcare professional monitor in a patient receiving insulin who is at risk for hypoglycemia?

• A. Monitor blood glucose levels
• B. Monitor for respiratory distress
• C. Monitor for muscle weakness
• D. Monitor for hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in patients receiving insulin who are at risk for hypoglycemia. Insulin can lower blood sugar levels, potentially leading to hypoglycemia, which can be harmful if not promptly recognized and managed. Checking blood glucose levels allows for early detection of low blood sugar levels, enabling timely interventions to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to monitoring for hypoglycemia in patients receiving insulin.

2. What are the dietary instructions for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Increase protein intake
• B. Reduce sodium intake
• C. Reduce potassium intake
• D. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excessive protein intake can worsen kidney function in such patients. Increasing protein intake, as mentioned in choice A, is not recommended due to the strain it puts on the kidneys. While reducing sodium intake, as in choice B, is relevant for managing blood pressure, it is not specifically related to pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Choice C, reducing potassium intake, is important for patients with kidney disease, but it is not the primary dietary instruction for those with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease.

3. What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves on ECG
• B. Prominent U waves on ECG
• C. Widened QRS complexes on ECG
• D. ST elevation on ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.

4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?

• A. Low potassium diet
• B. High fiber diet
• C. Low fat diet
• D. Low sodium diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Low fat diet. A low-fat diet is recommended for clients with chronic cholecystitis to reduce episodes of biliary colic. High-fat foods can trigger symptoms by causing the gallbladder to contract, leading to pain. Choice A, a low potassium diet, is not specifically indicated for chronic cholecystitis. Choice B, a high fiber diet, though generally healthy, may worsen symptoms in some individuals with cholecystitis due to the increased intestinal gas production. Choice D, a low sodium diet, is not directly related to the management of chronic cholecystitis.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has unstable angina. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Breath sounds
• B. Temperature
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Creatine kinase

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breath sounds. When caring for a client with unstable angina, changes in breath sounds could indicate left ventricular failure and pulmonary edema due to decreased cardiac output and reduced cardiac perfusion. Reporting any abnormalities in breath sounds promptly to the provider is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the immediate management of unstable angina. Temperature, blood pressure, and creatine kinase levels are important parameters to monitor but are not the priority in this situation.

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