ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What should a healthcare professional monitor in a patient receiving insulin who is at risk for hypoglycemia?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels
- B. Monitor for respiratory distress
- C. Monitor for muscle weakness
- D. Monitor for hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in patients receiving insulin who are at risk for hypoglycemia. Insulin can lower blood sugar levels, potentially leading to hypoglycemia, which can be harmful if not promptly recognized and managed. Checking blood glucose levels allows for early detection of low blood sugar levels, enabling timely interventions to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to monitoring for hypoglycemia in patients receiving insulin.
2. What are the expected ECG changes in hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. ST elevation
- C. Wide QRS complex
- D. Tall T waves
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are the most common ECG change seen in patients with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia leads to a decrease in serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. This results in T wave flattening or inversion. ST elevation is typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Wide QRS complex is more associated with hyperkalemia than hypokalemia. Tall T waves are often seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.
3. What recommendations should the nurse provide to a patient diagnosed with GERD?
- A. Avoid items like mint that increase gastric acid secretion
- B. Eat small, frequent meals
- C. Avoid eating 1 hour before bedtime
- D. Avoid black and red pepper
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid items like mint that increase gastric acid secretion.' Mint can relax the lower esophageal sphincter, leading to increased gastric acid secretion and worsening GERD symptoms. Choice B is a good recommendation for GERD management as it helps prevent excessive stomach distension. Choice C is also a recommended practice to avoid reflux during sleep. Choice D, avoiding black and red pepper, is not directly linked to exacerbating GERD symptoms, so it is not the most relevant recommendation for a patient diagnosed with GERD.
4. A client is being taught about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for colorectal cancer screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Your provider will use a stool sample obtained during a digital rectal examination to perform the test.
- B. Your provider will recommend a stimulant laxative before the test to empty the bowel.
- C. You should start annual fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at the age of 40.
- D. You should avoid corticosteroids before the test.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should advise the client to avoid corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications, and vitamin C before fecal occult blood testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect as stool samples for FOBT are usually collected using a kit at home. Choice B is incorrect because stimulant laxatives are not typically used before FOBT. Choice C is incorrect as guidelines recommend starting colorectal cancer screening at the age of 50, not 40.
5. What lab value should be prioritized for monitoring in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Serum albumin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of their immune system. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is indicative of severe immunocompromise, necessitating close monitoring and potential intervention. Choices B, C, and D are less specific to HIV management and do not directly reflect the immune status in these patients. Hemoglobin levels are more relevant for assessing anemia, serum albumin levels for nutritional status, and white blood cell count for overall immune response, but none are as directly tied to HIV disease progression as the CD4 T-cell count.
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