ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What should a healthcare professional monitor in a patient receiving insulin who is at risk for hypoglycemia?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels
- B. Monitor for respiratory distress
- C. Monitor for muscle weakness
- D. Monitor for hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in patients receiving insulin who are at risk for hypoglycemia. Insulin can lower blood sugar levels, potentially leading to hypoglycemia, which can be harmful if not promptly recognized and managed. Checking blood glucose levels allows for early detection of low blood sugar levels, enabling timely interventions to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to monitoring for hypoglycemia in patients receiving insulin.
2. A nurse misreads a glucose reading and administers insulin for a blood glucose of 210 instead of 120. What should the nurse monitor the patient for?
- A. Monitor for hyperglycemia
- B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia
- C. Administer glucose IV
- D. Document the incident
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia. The nurse should monitor the patient for hypoglycemia due to the administration of excess insulin. Administering insulin for a blood glucose level of 210 instead of 120 can lead to a rapid drop in blood sugar levels, causing hypoglycemia. Option A is incorrect as hyperglycemia is high blood sugar, which is unlikely in this scenario. Option C is incorrect as administering glucose IV would worsen the hypoglycemia. Option D is not the immediate priority; patient safety and monitoring for adverse effects take precedence.
3. What are the dietary recommendations for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Limit sodium intake to 1,500 mg/day
- C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
- D. Increase protein intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. High phosphorus levels can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as the kidneys may not be able to filter it effectively. While limiting sodium intake to 1,500 mg/day and restricting protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day are important in managing kidney disease, the primary concern for this patient population is to control phosphorus levels. Increasing protein intake is not recommended as it can put additional strain on the kidneys. Therefore, option A is the most appropriate recommendation in this scenario.
4. What is the first nursing action for a patient with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Increase fluids to prevent dehydration
- C. Obtain cardiac enzymes
- D. Get IV access and auscultate heart sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority nursing action for a patient with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate the blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and reduce cardiac workload. This action aims to relieve chest pain promptly and prevent further cardiac tissue damage. Increasing fluids is not the initial priority for a patient with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome. Obtaining cardiac enzymes is important for diagnosis but is not the first action in managing acute symptoms. Getting IV access and auscultating heart sounds are important interventions, but they come after administering sublingual nitroglycerin in the management of acute coronary syndrome.
5. What is a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. ST elevation
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Widened QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. When potassium levels are low, it can lead to changes in the ECG, such as T wave flattening. This alteration is important to recognize as it indicates potential electrolyte imbalances. ST elevation (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Widened QRS complex (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like hyperkalemia.
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