what lab value should be prioritized in a patient with hiv
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. In a patient with HIV, monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and risk of opportunistic infections. Hemoglobin levels (choice B) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect the immune status in HIV patients. Serum albumin levels (choice C) are indicators of nutritional status and inflammation, not specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) may fluctuate due to various conditions and is not as specific as the CD4 T-cell count in assessing HIV progression.

2. What should the nurse do when a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. Lowering the height helps relieve cramping by slowing down the flow of the enema, reducing discomfort for the patient. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is incorrect as it does not directly address the cramping issue. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, could potentially worsen the cramping by prolonging the discomfort. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, is also incorrect as it may intensify the cramping and cause more discomfort to the patient.

3. A patient has been diagnosed with a thrombotic stroke. What are the expected manifestations?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Gradual loss of function on one side of the body.' Thrombotic strokes lead to slow and progressive symptoms as a result of decreased blood flow to a specific area of the brain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, seizures, confusion, and loss of sensation in the affected limb are not typical manifestations of a thrombotic stroke.

4. What should the nurse do for a patient experiencing abdominal cramping during enema administration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. This action helps relieve the cramping by slowing down the flow of the solution. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is incorrect as it is too drastic and may not address the cramping. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, may exacerbate the cramping if the flow rate is still too high. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, would worsen the cramping and is not the appropriate intervention.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Furosemide can lead to hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood. Increasing the consumption of high-potassium foods helps prevent this adverse effect. Monitoring for increased blood pressure (choice A) is not directly related to furosemide use. Expecting an increase in swelling (choice C) is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce swelling. Taking the second dose at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary unless prescribed by the healthcare provider.

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