Nursing Elites

1. What is the first-line treatment for a patient experiencing wheezing and coughing due to an allergic reaction?

• A. Albuterol via nebulizer
• B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
• C. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
• D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction as it quickly opens the airways, providing rapid relief. Choice B, Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV, is a systemic corticosteroid that may be used in severe cases to reduce inflammation but is not the initial treatment for acute wheezing. Choice C, Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer, is a mast cell stabilizer that is more commonly used for prophylaxis rather than acute relief in allergic conditions. Choice D, Aminophylline 500 mg IV, is a bronchodilator that is less commonly used now due to its narrow therapeutic window and potential for toxicity, making it less preferred than Albuterol for initial treatment of wheezing.

2. What are the expected signs of compartment syndrome?

• A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
• B. Fever, swelling, and redness
• C. Muscle cramps and weakness
• D. Redness and itching

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. Compartment syndrome is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to inadequate blood supply. This results in severe pain that is unrelieved by rest or medication, pallor due to compromised blood flow, and pulselessness as a late sign of severe ischemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fever, swelling, and redness are not typical signs of compartment syndrome. Muscle cramps and weakness may occur due to other conditions, but they are not primary indicators of compartment syndrome. Redness and itching are also not commonly associated with compartment syndrome.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about dietary modifications to help control blood pressure. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend as the best choice for the client to include in their diet?

• A. 1 packet of reconstituted dry onion soup
• B. 3 oz of lean cured ham
• C. 3 oz of chicken breast
• D. ½ cup of canned baked beans

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a client with hypertension, a low sodium diet is recommended to help control blood pressure. Among the food choices provided, the best option is 3 oz of chicken breast. Chicken breast is lean protein with lower sodium content compared to other choices. It is a healthier option for managing hypertension. Reconstituted dry onion soup (Choice A) and canned baked beans (Choice D) typically contain higher amounts of sodium, which can be detrimental for blood pressure management. Lean cured ham (Choice B) also tends to have a higher sodium content, making it less suitable for a client with hypertension.

4. A patient diagnosed with hypokalemia is at risk for which condition?

• A. Cardiac dysrhythmias
• B. Muscle weakness
• C. Seizures
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients diagnosed with hypokalemia are at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias due to low potassium levels. Hypokalemia can lead to abnormalities in the electrical conduction system of the heart, potentially causing irregular heart rhythms. Muscle weakness (Choice B) is a symptom commonly associated with hypokalemia, but the question asks about conditions the patient is at risk for, not specific symptoms. Seizures (Choice C) are not typically associated with hypokalemia; they are more commonly linked with conditions such as epilepsy. Bradycardia (Choice D) refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a typical risk associated with hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly observed in patients with low potassium levels.

5. What ECG changes are seen in hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves on the ECG
• B. Elevated ST segments on the ECG
• C. Widened QRS complex
• D. Prominent U waves on the ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on the ECG. Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Choice B, Elevated ST segments, is not typically seen in hypokalemia but can be a sign of myocardial infarction. Choice C, Widened QRS complex, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia. Choice D, Prominent U waves, is typically associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are considered a more specific and early sign.

Similar Questions