ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Serum albumin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.
2. What are the expected symptoms in a patient experiencing a thrombotic stroke?
- A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
- B. Sudden loss of consciousness
- C. Seizures and convulsions
- D. Severe headache and vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Gradual loss of function on one side of the body.' Thrombotic strokes typically result in a gradual onset of symptoms due to a blockage in a blood vessel in the brain, leading to a slow progression of neurological deficits. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, seizures, convulsions, severe headache, and vomiting are more commonly associated with other types of strokes or medical conditions, such as hemorrhagic strokes, epilepsy, or migraines.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who was newly diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following statements should indicate to the nurse that the client understands the teaching?
- A. I can expect swelling in my hands and on my face.
- B. The amount of protein in my blood is high.
- C. I might have some pain and gas in my stomach from this condition.
- D. I will use a soft bristle toothbrush to prevent bleeding gums.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nephrotic syndrome leads to edema, especially of the face and dependent areas, due to the loss of protein in the urine. Choice B is incorrect because nephrotic syndrome leads to protein loss in the urine, not an increase in blood protein levels. Choice C is incorrect as stomach pain and gas are not typical symptoms of nephrotic syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as using a soft bristle toothbrush is not directly related to the manifestations of nephrotic syndrome.
4. What dietary teaching should be provided to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase protein intake to 1.5 g/kg/day
- C. Restrict sodium intake to 1 g/day
- D. Increase potassium intake to 3 g/day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excess phosphorus can lead to complications such as bone and heart issues in these patients. Increasing protein intake (Choice B) is generally not recommended as it can lead to increased waste production that the kidneys may struggle to eliminate. Restricting sodium intake (Choice C) is important for managing blood pressure, but the recommendation is usually higher than 1 g/day. Increasing potassium intake (Choice D) is not typically advised in patients with kidney disease, as they often need to limit potassium due to impaired kidney function.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about using a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device to treat obstructive sleep apnea. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. It delivers a preset amount of inspiratory pressure throughout the breathing cycle
- B. It has a continuous adjustment feature that changes the airway pressure throughout the cycle
- C. It delivers a preset amount of airway pressure throughout the breathing cycle
- D. It delivers positive pressure at the end of each breath
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a CPAP device delivers a preset amount of positive airway pressure continuously throughout all inspiration and expiration cycles. Choice A is incorrect because CPAP does not deliver inspiratory pressure at the beginning of each breath; it provides continuous positive pressure. Choice B is incorrect because CPAP typically delivers a constant pressure rather than having a feature that changes pressure throughout the cycle. Choice D is incorrect as CPAP does not deliver positive pressure specifically at the end of each breath; it maintains a consistent pressure throughout the breathing cycle.
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