what lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with hiv

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. Hemoglobin levels
C. Serum albumin levels
D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse the need for immediate intervention?

A. Axillary temperature 37.2°C (99°F)
B. Apical pulse 100/min
C. Respiratory rate 30/min
D. Blood pressure 140/84 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should prioritize airway and breathing in a client with a traumatic brain injury. An increased respiratory rate may indicate CO2 retention, which could lead to increased intracranial pressure. Choice A, axillary temperature 37.2°C (99°F), is within normal range and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Choice B, apical pulse 100/min, is slightly elevated but not as critical as respiratory distress in this scenario. Choice D, blood pressure 140/84 mm Hg, is also within normal limits and does not require immediate intervention compared to the respiratory rate.

3. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

A. Monitor for signs of infection
B. Monitor for anemia
C. Monitor for dehydration
D. Monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

4. What should the nurse do when a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
D. Increase the flow of the enema solution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. Lowering the height helps relieve cramping by slowing down the flow of the enema, reducing discomfort for the patient. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is incorrect as it does not directly address the cramping issue. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, could potentially worsen the cramping by prolonging the discomfort. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, is also incorrect as it may intensify the cramping and cause more discomfort to the patient.

5. What ECG changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves and prominent U waves
B. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes
C. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes
D. Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves and prominent U waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in potassium levels, which can lead to ECG changes such as flattened T waves and prominent U waves. These changes are classic findings associated with hypokalemia. Choices B (Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes), C (Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes), and D (Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude) are all incorrect. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes, as well as widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude, do not represent the typical ECG changes seen in hypokalemia.