ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Serum albumin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.
2. What should a healthcare professional monitor in a patient receiving insulin who is at risk for hypoglycemia?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels
- B. Monitor for respiratory distress
- C. Monitor for muscle weakness
- D. Monitor for hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in patients receiving insulin who are at risk for hypoglycemia. Insulin can lower blood sugar levels, potentially leading to hypoglycemia, which can be harmful if not promptly recognized and managed. Checking blood glucose levels allows for early detection of low blood sugar levels, enabling timely interventions to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to monitoring for hypoglycemia in patients receiving insulin.
3. A patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration. What is the appropriate action?
- A. Lower the height of the solution container
- B. Stop the procedure and remove tubing
- C. Increase the flow of enema solution
- D. Continue the enema at a slower rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lowering the height of the enema solution container is the appropriate action when a patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration. This helps reduce the flow rate of the solution, potentially alleviating the cramping. Stopping the procedure and removing tubing (Choice B) would be too abrupt and may not address the issue. Increasing the flow of enema solution (Choice C) could exacerbate the cramping by adding more pressure. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) might not provide immediate relief compared to lowering the height of the solution container.
4. What adverse effect might occur in a patient receiving radiation after a mastectomy?
- A. Seizures
- B. JVD and fatigue
- C. SOB and JVD
- D. S3 heart sound
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct adverse effect that might occur in a patient receiving radiation after a mastectomy is the development of an S3 heart sound. This can result from decreased pumping ability following mastectomy and radiation treatment. Choice A, seizures, is incorrect as seizures are not a common adverse effect of radiation after a mastectomy. Choice B, JVD and fatigue, is incorrect as while fatigue can be a common side effect, JVD (Jugular Venous Distention) is not typically associated with radiation after a mastectomy. Choice C, SOB (Shortness of Breath) and JVD, is incorrect as while shortness of breath can occur, JVD is not a typical adverse effect of radiation post-mastectomy.
5. What is the appropriate electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse?
- A. Defibrillation
- B. Synchronized cardioversion
- C. Pacing
- D. Medication administration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Synchronized cardioversion is the correct electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse. This procedure delivers a synchronized electrical shock to the heart during a specific phase of the cardiac cycle, aiming to restore the heart's normal rhythm. Defibrillation (choice A) is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing (choice C) is typically used for bradycardias or certain types of heart blocks. Medication administration (choice D) may be used in some cases, but in the scenario of ventricular tachycardia with a pulse, synchronized cardioversion is the preferred intervention.
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