Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Buspirone to treat Anxiety. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Expect optimal therapeutic effects within 24 hours.
• C. Take this medication daily for anxiety.
• D. This medication has a low risk for dependency.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should educate the client that Buspirone has a low risk for physical or psychological dependence or tolerance. This information is crucial for the client to understand the medication's safety profile and potential risks associated with long-term use.

2. A client has a new prescription for Lithium Carbonate. When teaching the client about ways to prevent Lithium toxicity, what advice should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid using acetaminophen for headaches.
• B. Restrict intake of foods high in sodium.
• C. Decrease fluid intake to less than 1,500 mL daily.
• D. Limit aerobic activity in hot weather.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should advise the client to limit aerobic activity in hot weather to prevent sodium/water depletion, which can increase the risk for Lithium toxicity. Excessive sweating and fluid loss can lead to dehydration and changes in lithium levels, potentially resulting in toxicity. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Avoiding acetaminophen for headaches is not directly related to Lithium toxicity. Restricting sodium intake and decreasing fluid intake can lead to increased lithium levels and toxicity, so these are not recommended actions.

3. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Ephedrine?

• A. COPD
• B. Hypotension
• C. Congestion
• D. Incontinence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ephedrine is not typically used to treat COPD. While it can help relieve symptoms like congestion and hypotension, it is not a first-line treatment for COPD. Incontinence is not a condition commonly treated with Ephedrine either.

4. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL
• B. Urine output 40 mL/hr
• C. Dyspnea
• D. Bilateral equal pupil size

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, an adverse effect of the medication. It suggests potential fluid overload or exacerbation of heart conditions, both of which require immediate attention. Reporting dyspnea promptly allows for timely evaluation and management. Blood glucose levels and urine output are important parameters to monitor but are not directly related to the administration of Mannitol for increased intracranial pressure. Bilateral equal pupil size is a normal and expected finding.

5. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

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