ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023
1. What is the recommended sleep duration for 14-17-year-olds?
- A. 14-17 hours
- B. 8-10 hours
- C. 12-15 hours
- D. 9-11 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The recommended sleep duration for adolescents aged 14-17 is 8-10 hours to promote optimal health. Getting enough sleep is crucial for their physical and mental well-being, as it supports growth, development, learning, and overall health.
2. Which assessment finding would necessitate action by the nurse for a 10-month-old child who is 4 hours postoperative for the placement of a urethral stent?
- A. Bloody urine
- B. One void since returning from surgery
- C. Bladder spasms responding to pharmacologic intervention
- D. Double diapering from the previous shift
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a postoperative scenario after the placement of a urethral stent, monitoring the child's voiding frequency is crucial. Having only one void since returning from surgery could indicate potential issues like urinary retention, which necessitates prompt nursing intervention to prevent complications.
3. A child receives a vaccine for MMR. Six hours after the injection, the child’s parent reports local soreness, erythema, lethargy, and a fever of 101°F to a nurse. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Give instructions on relieving symptoms with acetaminophen
- B. Seek emergency help, because these symptoms are signs of anaphylactic reaction
- C. Tell the parent that a live vaccine will cause a mild case of measles
- D. Obtain and fill out a Vaccine Adverse Event Report form
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Low-grade fever, malaise, and muscle aches are common reactions. Acetaminophen usually alleviates these problems. MMR is a live vaccine but it is attenuated or completely avirulent and does not cause measles in healthy children, only immunocompromised children.
4. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse anticipate when assessing a child admitted to the hospital unit with a diagnosis of minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS)?
- A. Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema
- B. Hematuria, bacteriuria, and weight gain
- C. Decreased urine specific gravity and increased urinary output
- D. Gross hematuria, albuminuria, and fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. Proteinuria results from the loss of proteins, particularly albumin, in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia. The low oncotic pressure due to hypoalbuminemia causes fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema. These clinical manifestations are classic signs of MCNS and help differentiate it from other renal conditions.
5. The healthcare provider is planning care for a patient receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia pump. Which intervention may be required due to a potential adverse effect of this drug?
- A. Administering a cough suppressant
- B. Inserting a Foley catheter
- C. Administering an anti-diarrheal
- D. Monitoring urinary output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Morphine can lead to urinary retention and urinary hesitancy. If a patient shows signs of bladder distention or inability to void, the healthcare provider should be notified, and urinary catheterization may be necessary. Administering a cough suppressant or an anti-diarrheal is not typically required to address adverse effects of morphine. Liver function tests (LFTs) are not directly related to the potential adverse effects of morphine on the urinary system.
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