a nurse is caring for an adolescent who is 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia which of the following
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ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A patient is 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia is to assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours. This frequent assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of complications such as impaired circulation or nerve damage. Monitoring every 4 hours allows for early detection of any issues, enabling timely intervention and prevention of potential complications. Monitoring the patient's pain level every 8 hours (choice B) is not as immediate or essential for postoperative care. Assisting the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours (choice C) may not be necessary if the patient is not ambulatory yet. Keeping the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows (choice D) can be beneficial but is not the priority in the immediate postoperative period compared to assessing neurovascular status.

2. For which patient diagnosis would a prescription for nifedipine be least appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nifedipine primarily acts as a calcium channel blocker, exerting its effects on vascular smooth muscle. It is not effective for treating dysrhythmias like Atrial Fibrillation, which involve abnormalities in the heart's electrical system. Nifedipine is commonly prescribed for conditions such as angina pectoris, essential hypertension, and vasospastic angina due to its vasodilatory and anti-anginal properties. Choices A, B, and D are more appropriate as nifedipine can help in managing angina pectoris, hypertension, and vasospastic angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and dilating coronary arteries.

3. A nurse assesses a male patient who has developed gynecomastia while receiving treatment for peptic ulcers. Which medication from the patient�s history should the nurse recognize as a contributing factor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cimetidine binds to androgen receptors, producing receptor blockade, which can cause enlarged breast tissue, reduced libido, and impotence. All these effects reverse when dosing stops. Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and omeprazole are not associated with gynecomastia.

4. A nurse is teaching a parent of a child who has asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the parent to use a peak flow meter daily to monitor the child�s respiratory status and detect early signs of an asthma attack.

5. A healthcare provider at an urgent care clinic is assessing an adolescent client who has an upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following findings should the provider recognize as a manifestation of pertussis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Dry, hacking cough.' A dry, hacking cough is a classic manifestation of pertussis. Pertussis typically presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection, starting with a persistent, severe, and uncontrollable cough that can worsen at night. This cough is often followed by a high-pitched 'whoop' sound as the patient tries to catch their breath, hence the term 'whooping cough.' In contrast, options A, B, and D are not typically associated with pertussis. Inflamed throat with exudate may suggest a bacterial throat infection like streptococcal pharyngitis, purulent eye drainage is more indicative of a bacterial conjunctivitis, and Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa are specific to measles. Therefore, recognizing the dry, hacking cough as a manifestation of pertussis is crucial for early identification and appropriate management of the disease.

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