Nursing Elites

1. A patient is 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours
• B. Monitor the patient's pain level every 8 hours
• C. Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours
• D. Keep the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia is to assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours. This frequent assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of complications such as impaired circulation or nerve damage. Monitoring every 4 hours allows for early detection of any issues, enabling timely intervention and prevention of potential complications. Monitoring the patient's pain level every 8 hours (choice B) is not as immediate or essential for postoperative care. Assisting the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours (choice C) may not be necessary if the patient is not ambulatory yet. Keeping the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows (choice D) can be beneficial but is not the priority in the immediate postoperative period compared to assessing neurovascular status.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a vaccine to a child who has hemophilia. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the vaccine subcutaneously
• B. Administer the vaccine intramuscularly
• C. Use a 1-inch needle
• D. Apply pressure to the site for 1 to 2 minutes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the vaccine intramuscularly to a child with hemophilia is preferred to reduce the risk of bleeding. Hemophiliac individuals have a decreased ability to form blood clots, and administering vaccines intramuscularly reduces the risk of bleeding compared to subcutaneous administration. Using an appropriate needle length and applying pressure to the site post-injection are important steps, but choosing the intramuscular route is crucial in this case to minimize bleeding complications.

3. What type of mode best describes Kasey's approach when meeting with the principal to change the cafeteria to better accommodate her client with difficulty eating in a noisy and distracting environment?

• A. Collaborating
• B. Instructing
• C. Advocating
• D. Encouraging

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Advocating best describes Kasey's approach in this scenario. Advocating involves presenting stories, research, and ideas to support and champion for a specific cause or individual, in this case, advocating for changes to better meet the child's needs in the cafeteria. Collaborating involves working together with others towards a common goal, instructing involves providing guidance or directions, and encouraging involves giving support or motivation, none of which fully capture Kasey's proactive and supportive advocacy actions in this context.

4. When a patient is taking glucocorticoids and digoxin, which electrolyte should the nurse prioritize monitoring?

• A. Calcium
• B. Magnesium
• C. Sodium
• D. Potassium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should primarily monitor potassium levels in a patient taking glucocorticoids and digoxin. Glucocorticoids can lead to potassium loss, potentially increasing the risk of digoxin toxicity. Additionally, glucocorticoids may worsen hypokalemia induced by diuretics like thiazides and loops. While calcium, magnesium, and sodium are important electrolytes to monitor in various clinical situations, they are not the priority in this specific scenario of a patient on glucocorticoids and digoxin.

5. When discussing the correction of hypospadias in a newborn, what does the nurse explain about this condition?

• A. No intervention is required as the defect will correct itself over time.
• B. Surgical repair of hypospadias is typically performed before 18 months of age.
• C. Corrective surgery is commonly postponed until preschool age.
• D. Repairing the defect does not increase the risk of testicular cancer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis. Surgical repair is the primary treatment for hypospadias and is usually recommended to be done before 18 months of age. This timing is preferred for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes. Waiting until preschool age for corrective surgery may increase the complexity of the procedure and potential complications. Correcting hypospadias does not impact the risk of testicular cancer.

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