Nursing Elites

1. When receiving change-of-shift report for children, which child should the nurse assess first?

• A. A toddler who has a concussion and an episode of forceful vomiting
• B. An adolescent with infective endocarditis who reports having a headache
• C. An adolescent who was placed into Halo traction 1 hour ago and rates his pain at a 6 on a 0-10 scale
• D. A school-age child with acute glomerulonephritis and brown-colored urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should assess the toddler with a concussion and an episode of forceful vomiting first when receiving change-of-shift report for children. Forceful vomiting in a toddler with a concussion indicates increased intracranial pressure, requiring immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further complications.

2. During an assessment, an infant is suspected to have intussusception. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Currant jelly stools
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Scaphoid abdomen
• D. Frequent stools

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intussusception is a condition where one segment of the intestine telescopes into another, causing obstruction. The classic presentation includes currant jelly stools, which are a mixture of blood and mucus due to the sloughing of the intestinal mucosa. This finding is a result of the compromised blood supply to the affected area and is a key characteristic associated with intussusception.

3. The healthcare provider is planning care for a patient receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia pump. Which intervention may be required due to a potential adverse effect of this drug?

• A. Administering a cough suppressant
• B. Inserting a Foley catheter
• C. Administering an anti-diarrheal
• D. Monitoring urinary output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Morphine can lead to urinary retention and urinary hesitancy. If a patient shows signs of bladder distention or inability to void, the healthcare provider should be notified, and urinary catheterization may be necessary. Administering a cough suppressant or an anti-diarrheal is not typically required to address adverse effects of morphine. Liver function tests (LFTs) are not directly related to the potential adverse effects of morphine on the urinary system.

4. A patient taking sildenafil (Viagra) asks a nurse what action to take if priapism occurs. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Take an additional half-strength dose of sildenafil
• B. The condition usually resolves in 12 hours or less
• C. Wait until the following day and notify the doctor
• D. Seek emergency help, because permanent damage can occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients experiencing priapism from sildenafil should seek immediate medical attention. Priapism is a serious condition where an erection lasts longer than 4 hours, and if left untreated, it can lead to irreversible damage to the penile tissue, potentially causing permanent erectile dysfunction. Therefore, prompt intervention is crucial to prevent long-term complications.

5. The nurse is teaching a patient with cancer about a new prescription for a fentanyl patch, 25mcg/hr. for chronic back pain. Which statement is the most appropriate to include in the teaching plan.

• A. You will need to change this patch every day, regardless of your pain level.
• B. This type of pain medication is not as likely to cause breathing problems.
• C. With the first patch, it will take about 24hrs before you feel the full effects.
• D. Use your heating pad for the back pain. It will also improve the patch’s effectiveness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Full analgesic effects can take up to 24 hours to develop with fentanyl patches. Most patches are changed every 72 hours. Has the same adverse effects as other opioids, including respiratory depression. Should avoid exposing the patch to external heat sources, because this may increase toxicity.

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