Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with shortness of breath?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Check oxygen saturation
• D. Elevate the head of the bed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority nursing action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy aims to improve oxygenation levels quickly, addressing the underlying cause of the symptom. Repositioning the patient, checking oxygen saturation, and elevating the head of the bed are important interventions but administering oxygen takes precedence in this scenario to ensure adequate oxygen supply to the body.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Chicken breast
• B. Pasta
• C. Spinach
• D. Yogurt

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Chicken breast. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Foods high in potassium, like spinach and yogurt, should be avoided when taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalemia. Chicken breast, being a low-potassium protein source, is a suitable recommendation for clients on spironolactone therapy.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a mastectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid using deodorant until the incision heals.
• B. Perform arm exercises 24 hours after surgery.
• C. Wear tight-fitting clothing to support the incision.
• D. Perform arm exercises 2 days after surgery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to avoid using deodorant until the incision heals. Using deodorant can lead to skin irritation, which should be prevented following a mastectomy. Choice B is incorrect because performing arm exercises should typically be delayed until recommended by the healthcare provider to prevent strain on the surgical site. Choice C is incorrect as tight-fitting clothing can increase discomfort and hinder proper healing. Choice D is also incorrect because initiating arm exercises should be based on the healthcare provider's guidance and not a specific timeframe.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Tremors
• B. Increased thirst
• C. Weight gain
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Tremors can indicate lithium toxicity, which should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Tremors are a significant sign of lithium toxicity and can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Increased thirst, weight gain, and diarrhea are common side effects of lithium but are not typically indicative of toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting tremors as it requires immediate attention.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Platelets 250,000/mm³
• B. aPTT 60 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
• D. INR 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

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