ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with shortness of breath?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Check oxygen saturation
- D. Elevate the head of the bed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority nursing action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy aims to improve oxygenation levels quickly, addressing the underlying cause of the symptom. Repositioning the patient, checking oxygen saturation, and elevating the head of the bed are important interventions but administering oxygen takes precedence in this scenario to ensure adequate oxygen supply to the body.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serum calcium level of 8 mg/dL.
- B. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.
- C. Heart rate of 110/min.
- D. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A heart rate of 110/min is elevated and may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication following a thyroidectomy. Elevated heart rate can be a sign of hypocalcemia due to the close relationship between calcium levels and cardiac function. Option A, serum calcium level of 8 mg/dL, is within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and would not be a cause for concern post-thyroidectomy. Option B, urine output of 60 mL/hr, is within the normal range for urine output and not typically a priority finding post-thyroidectomy. Option D, a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F), is slightly elevated but not a critical finding post-thyroidectomy unless accompanied by other symptoms.
3. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with meals to prevent nausea.
- B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- D. Monitor for signs of infection.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Clopidogrel affects platelet levels, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is essential for clients taking clopidogrel to monitor for signs of infection, which could indicate a lowered immune response. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the specific monitoring needs associated with clopidogrel therapy.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Grilled chicken.
- B. Fresh fruit.
- C. White bread.
- D. Cheddar cheese.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.
5. What is the initial action a healthcare provider should take for a patient with chest pain?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer nitroglycerin
- C. Administer morphine
- D. Prepare for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial action for a patient with chest pain is to administer oxygen. Chest pain can be caused by insufficient oxygenation, and providing oxygen helps alleviate the pain by increasing oxygen levels in the blood. Administering nitroglycerin or morphine may be appropriate based on the underlying cause of the chest pain, but oxygen should be given first to ensure the patient's oxygen supply is adequate. Surgery is not typically the initial intervention for chest pain.
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