Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with shortness of breath?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Check oxygen saturation
• D. Elevate the head of the bed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority nursing action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy aims to improve oxygenation levels quickly, addressing the underlying cause of the symptom. Repositioning the patient, checking oxygen saturation, and elevating the head of the bed are important interventions but administering oxygen takes precedence in this scenario to ensure adequate oxygen supply to the body.

2. A nurse manager is planning to promote client advocacy among staff in a medical unit. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage staff to implement the principle of paternalism when a client is having difficulty making a choice
• B. Tell staff to explain procedures to clients before obtaining informed consent
• C. Instruct unit staff to share personal experiences to help clients make decisions
• D. Develop a system for staff members to report safety concerns in the client care environment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Developing a system for staff members to report safety concerns in the client care environment is crucial to promoting client advocacy and ensuring client safety. This action empowers staff to identify and address potential safety issues, ultimately enhancing the quality of care provided. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests implementing paternalism, which involves making decisions for clients without their input, contradicting the principles of client advocacy. Choice B focuses on informed consent procedures, which are important but do not directly relate to promoting client advocacy among staff. Choice C, sharing personal experiences, may not always align with professional boundaries and can potentially bias clients' decision-making processes.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which statement should the nurse make?

• A. Dehydration is treated with calcium supplements.
• B. Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.
• C. Dehydration is caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• D. Dehydration causes gastroesophageal reflux.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement is B: 'Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.' Dehydration can lead to increased uterine irritability, potentially causing preterm contractions and labor. Choice A is incorrect as dehydration is not treated with calcium supplements but rather with fluids. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels but rather by a lack of fluids. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration does not directly cause gastroesophageal reflux.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication of hypocalcemia?

• A. Tingling in the fingers.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Positive Chvostek's sign.
• D. Positive Kernig's sign.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tingling in the fingers. Tingling in the fingers is a common sign of hypocalcemia, often seen after a thyroidectomy. Hypocalcemia can occur post-thyroidectomy due to inadvertent damage or removal of the parathyroid glands which regulate calcium levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Positive Chvostek's sign is a clinical sign of hypocalcemia but is usually assessed as facial muscle twitching, not tingling in the fingers. Positive Kernig's sign is a test for meningitis, not related to hypocalcemia.

5. A client with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent enteral feedings should be positioned in which way?

• A. Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water before feedings.
• B. Place the client in a supine position during feedings.
• C. Position the client with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.
• D. Check gastric residuals every 8 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Positioning the client with the head of the bed elevated at 45 degrees is crucial during enteral feedings to prevent aspiration. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of feedings into the lungs. Option A is not necessary before feedings. Placing the client in a supine position (Option B) increases the risk of aspiration. Checking gastric residuals every 8 hours (Option D) is important but not directly related to positioning during enteral feedings.

Similar Questions