ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. During an in-service about nursing leadership, what information should the nurse include about an effective leader?
- A. Acts as an advocate for the nursing unit.
- B. Prioritizes staff requests over client needs.
- C. Shares personal opinions to influence the group's values.
- D. Provides routine client care and documentation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An effective leader advocates for the unit's success and its members. Choice B is incorrect because prioritizing staff requests over client needs does not align with effective leadership, which should focus on client-centered care. Choice C is incorrect as sharing personal opinions to influence the group's values can be biased and may not reflect the best interest of the team. Choice D is incorrect because while providing client care is essential, effective leadership involves more than routine tasks and includes guiding and supporting the team.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Tremors
- B. Increased thirst
- C. Weight gain
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Tremors can indicate lithium toxicity, which should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Tremors are a significant sign of lithium toxicity and can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Increased thirst, weight gain, and diarrhea are common side effects of lithium but are not typically indicative of toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting tremors as it requires immediate attention.
3. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?
- A. Potassium
- B. PT/INR
- C. Sodium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg
- B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
- C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.
5. A nurse is caring for an infant who has coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the nurse identify as an expected finding?
- A. Weak femoral pulses.
- B. Frequent nosebleeds.
- C. Upper extremity hypotension.
- D. Increased intracranial pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Weak femoral pulses are an expected finding in an infant with coarctation of the aorta. The narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities, resulting in weak or absent femoral pulses. Frequent nosebleeds (Choice B) are not typically associated with coarctation of the aorta. Upper extremity hypotension (Choice C) is not a common finding in coarctation of the aorta; instead, blood pressure is usually elevated in the upper extremities. Increased intracranial pressure (Choice D) is not directly related to coarctation of the aorta.
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