Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning to teach a group of clients about preventing low back pain. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Wear low-heeled shoes.
• B. Elevate the legs while sitting.
• C. Engage in prolonged sitting to rest the back muscles.
• D. Sleep on a soft mattress to prevent strain on the back.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Wear low-heeled shoes.' Wearing low-heeled shoes helps prevent back strain by promoting proper posture. High heels can cause an imbalance in the body's alignment, leading to increased stress on the lower back. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Elevating the legs while sitting can help with circulation but does not directly prevent low back pain. Engaging in prolonged sitting can actually contribute to low back pain due to decreased muscle activity and increased pressure on the spine. Sleeping on a soft mattress may not provide adequate support for the back, potentially worsening back pain instead of preventing it.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent catheter-associated infections?

• A. Change the catheter every 24 hours
• B. Ensure the drainage bag is positioned above the bladder
• C. Perform routine irrigation of the catheter
• D. Empty the drainage bag every 4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the drainage bag is positioned above the bladder. This positioning prevents urine reflux into the bladder, reducing the risk of catheter-associated infections. Changing the catheter too frequently (Choice A) can actually increase the risk of infection by introducing pathogens. Performing routine catheter irrigation (Choice C) is no longer recommended as it can increase the risk of infection by introducing bacteria. Emptying the drainage bag every 4 hours (Choice D) is a standard practice to prevent urinary stasis but is not directly related to preventing catheter-associated infections.

3. What is the best position for a patient in respiratory distress?

• A. Semi-Fowler's position
• B. Trendelenburg position
• C. Prone position
• D. Supine position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best position for a patient in respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and eases breathing by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position (choice B) where the patient's feet are higher than the head is not recommended in respiratory distress as it may cause increased pressure on the chest and reduced lung expansion. The prone position (choice C) lying on the stomach is also not optimal for respiratory distress as it can further compromise breathing. The supine position (choice D) lying flat on the back is not ideal as it may impair breathing by restricting chest expansion.

4. A client in her second trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about managing nausea and vomiting. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I will drink a glass of orange juice before I get out of bed.''
• B. ''I will eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.''
• C. ''I will take 1 g of acetaminophen every 6 hours.''
• D. ''I will avoid foods that have a strong odor.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating small, frequent meals is a recommended strategy to manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This approach helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Option A is not as effective as eating small, frequent meals. Option C is unrelated to managing nausea and vomiting, and acetaminophen should only be taken as directed by a healthcare provider. Option D may help reduce nausea in some cases, but the most appropriate response related to managing symptoms is to eat small, frequent meals.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Ataxia.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.

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