what is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with hiv
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV to assess the status of their immune system. A CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and a high risk of opportunistic infections. This value is used to guide treatment decisions and assess the need for prophylaxis against specific infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring white blood cell count, potassium levels, and hemoglobin levels, although important in HIV patients, are not as crucial as monitoring the CD4 T-cell count for assessing immune function and disease progression.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. The client has a peripheral IV and a prescription for an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL with 40 mEq potassium chloride to infuse over 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to verify the prescription with the provider. This is crucial to prevent injury from fluid volume overload and rapid potassium infusion. Verifying the prescription ensures that the correct solution, rate, and additives are ordered according to the client's condition. While evaluating the patency of the IV is important, verifying the prescription takes precedence to ensure patient safety. Consulting with the pharmacist can be beneficial, but confirming the prescription with the provider is the immediate priority. Teaching the client about IV extravasation is important but is not the first action the nurse should take in this scenario.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has unstable angina. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breath sounds. When caring for a client with unstable angina, changes in breath sounds could indicate left ventricular failure and pulmonary edema due to decreased cardiac output and reduced cardiac perfusion. Reporting any abnormalities in breath sounds promptly to the provider is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the immediate management of unstable angina. Temperature, blood pressure, and creatine kinase levels are important parameters to monitor but are not the priority in this situation.

4. What are the early signs of hypokalemia on an ECG?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. In hypokalemia, the T waves may flatten and eventually invert. Elevated ST segments are not typically associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in conditions like hypokalemia, but they are not considered an early sign. A widened QRS complex is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia.

5. What is the priority action when a healthcare professional misreads a glucose reading and administers excess insulin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action when a healthcare professional misreads a glucose reading and administers excess insulin is to monitor for hypoglycemia. Excess insulin can lead to dangerously low blood sugar levels (hypoglycemia), which can result in serious complications. Monitoring for hypoglycemia allows for timely identification and intervention to prevent harm. Administering IV glucose may be necessary if hypoglycemia occurs. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is not the priority in this situation, as excess insulin would lower blood sugar levels. Documenting the incident is important for reporting and quality improvement purposes but should not take precedence over ensuring patient safety by monitoring for hypoglycemia.

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