what is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with hiv
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV to assess the status of their immune system. A CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and a high risk of opportunistic infections. This value is used to guide treatment decisions and assess the need for prophylaxis against specific infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring white blood cell count, potassium levels, and hemoglobin levels, although important in HIV patients, are not as crucial as monitoring the CD4 T-cell count for assessing immune function and disease progression.

2. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

3. What is the priority intervention for a patient with unstable angina?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority intervention for a patient with unstable angina as it helps dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, relieve chest pain, and prevent further cardiac damage. Establishing IV access (choice B) may be important but is not the priority over administering nitroglycerin in this scenario. Auscultating heart sounds (choice C) and administering aspirin (choice D) are also important aspects of managing unstable angina, but they are not the immediate priority intervention when a patient is experiencing chest pain.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig's sign?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive Kernig's sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding suggests meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig's sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, Choice C refers to coordination deficits, and Choice D indicates neck pain and stiffness, which are not related to Kernig's sign.

5. A client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia should increase the consumption of which of the following foods?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, making them beneficial for a client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A), apples (Choice B), and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. Other iron-rich foods include dried fruits, red meat, and green leafy vegetables.

Similar Questions

What teaching should be provided to a patient following an escharotomy for burn injuries?
What dietary recommendations are given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
What is the first medication to administer for a patient experiencing wheezing due to an allergic reaction?
A patient is receiving discharge instructions for GERD. Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?
A patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is asking for dietary recommendations. What should the nurse suggest?

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses