Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• B. Positive Chvostek's sign
• C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• D. Dry mucous membranes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected deep tendon reflexes occur with hyponatremia. Other manifestations of hyponatremia include headache, confusion, lethargy, fatigue, seizures, and muscle weakness. Positive Chvostek's sign is associated with hypocalcemia, hyperactive bowel sounds are not typically related to hyponatremia, and dry mucous membranes are more commonly seen with dehydration.

2. What are the expected ECG changes in hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. ST elevation
• C. Wide QRS complex
• D. Tall T waves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are the most common ECG change seen in patients with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia leads to a decrease in serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. This results in T wave flattening or inversion. ST elevation is typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Wide QRS complex is more associated with hyperkalemia than hypokalemia. Tall T waves are often seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

3. What dietary teaching should be provided to a patient with GERD?

• A. Avoid mint and pepper
• B. Consume liquids with meals
• C. Increase fluid intake with meals
• D. Eat large meals before bed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary teaching for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and pepper. Mint and pepper can trigger reflux symptoms and increase gastric acid secretion, exacerbating GERD. Choices B and C are not recommended for patients with GERD as consuming liquids with meals and increasing fluid intake during meals can contribute to reflux by distending the stomach. Choice D, eating large meals before bed, can also worsen GERD symptoms by increasing pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter and promoting reflux.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Lidocaine
• B. Adenosine
• C. Atropine
• D. Verapamil

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atropine. The client's presentation of bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain indicates reduced cardiac output, requiring intervention to increase the heart rate. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia by blocking cardiac muscarinic receptors, thus inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine (Choice A) is used for ventricular arrhythmias, not bradycardia. Adenosine (Choice B) is used for supraventricular tachycardia, not bradycardia. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for certain arrhythmias and hypertension, but not for increasing heart rate in bradycardia.

5. What is the priority intervention when a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

• A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
• B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
• C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
• D. Increase the flow of the enema solution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to lower the height of the enema solution container. This action can help relieve abdominal cramping by slowing the flow of the enema, reducing discomfort for the patient. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is not the priority as adjusting the height of the container can often resolve the issue without needing to stop the procedure completely. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, may not address the immediate discomfort experienced by the patient. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, can exacerbate the cramping and should be avoided.

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