a nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 meql which of the following findings should the nurse expect

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
B. Positive Chvostek's sign
C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
D. Dry mucous membranes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected deep tendon reflexes occur with hyponatremia. Other manifestations of hyponatremia include headache, confusion, lethargy, fatigue, seizures, and muscle weakness. Positive Chvostek's sign is associated with hypocalcemia, hyperactive bowel sounds are not typically related to hyponatremia, and dry mucous membranes are more commonly seen with dehydration.

2. What medication should be given first to a patient experiencing wheezing and coughing due to an allergic reaction?

A. Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer
B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
C. Aminophylline IV
D. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer. Albuterol is a bronchodilator that helps relieve wheezing and coughing by opening up the airways, making it the first-line treatment for allergic reactions presenting with these symptoms. Cromolyn and aminophylline are not typically used as first-line treatments for acute allergic reactions with wheezing and coughing. Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, may be beneficial for inflammation in the setting of an allergic reaction but is not the initial medication of choice to address wheezing and coughing.

3. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?

A. Flattened T waves
B. Elevated ST segments
C. Prominent U waves
D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

4. What are the characteristics of a thrombotic stroke?

A. Gradual onset over minutes to hours
B. Numbness on one side of the body
C. Associated with a loss of consciousness
D. Associated with seizures and convulsions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Thrombotic strokes typically have a gradual onset over minutes to hours as they result from a clot obstructing blood flow. Choice B, numbness on one side of the body, is more commonly associated with an ischemic stroke rather than specifically a thrombotic stroke. Choice C, loss of consciousness, is not a defining characteristic of a thrombotic stroke. Choice D, seizures and convulsions, are more commonly seen in hemorrhagic strokes rather than thrombotic strokes.

5. What action should a healthcare provider take if a patient reports cramping during enema administration?

A. Lower the height of the solution container
B. Increase the flow of the enema solution
C. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
D. Continue the enema at a slower rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient reports cramping during enema administration, the best action is to lower the height of the enema solution container. This adjustment helps relieve abdominal cramping by slowing down the flow of the enema, making it more comfortable for the patient. Increasing the flow of the solution (choice B) would exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (choice C) may be necessary in some cases but should not be the first response to cramping. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (choice D) might not be as effective as lowering the height of the solution container in addressing the cramping.