ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
- B. Positive Chvostek's sign
- C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
- D. Dry mucous membranes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected deep tendon reflexes occur with hyponatremia. Other manifestations of hyponatremia include headache, confusion, lethargy, fatigue, seizures, and muscle weakness. Positive Chvostek's sign is associated with hypocalcemia, hyperactive bowel sounds are not typically related to hyponatremia, and dry mucous membranes are more commonly seen with dehydration.
2. What is the correct response when a patient receiving an enema reports abdominal cramping?
- A. Lower the height of the enema container
- B. Stop the enema procedure
- C. Remove the enema tubing
- D. Continue the enema at a slower rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response when a patient receiving an enema reports abdominal cramping is to lower the height of the enema container. Lowering the height reduces the flow rate, which can help relieve cramping. Stopping the procedure (choice B) may not be necessary if adjusting the height resolves the issue. Removing the enema tubing (choice C) is not the initial step to take when addressing abdominal cramping during an enema. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (choice D) might not be as effective as lowering the height of the container to alleviate cramping.
3. What lab value should be prioritized for monitoring in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Serum albumin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of their immune system. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is indicative of severe immunocompromise, necessitating close monitoring and potential intervention. Choices B, C, and D are less specific to HIV management and do not directly reflect the immune status in these patients. Hemoglobin levels are more relevant for assessing anemia, serum albumin levels for nutritional status, and white blood cell count for overall immune response, but none are as directly tied to HIV disease progression as the CD4 T-cell count.
4. What dietary recommendations should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase sodium intake
- C. Increase protein intake
- D. Increase potassium intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications in such patients. Increasing sodium intake (Choice B) is generally not recommended due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention. While protein is essential, increasing protein intake (Choice C) in kidney disease can be harmful as it can lead to increased waste products that the kidneys may struggle to excrete. Increasing potassium intake (Choice D) is not advisable as well, as patients with kidney disease may already have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia.
5. What precaution should be advised to a patient following a cataract surgery?
- A. Wear dark glasses while outdoors
- B. Avoid NSAIDs
- C. Use warm compresses
- D. Apply cold packs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Following cataract surgery, patients are advised to wear dark glasses while outdoors. This is crucial to protect the eyes from bright light and prevent complications such as excessive glare or discomfort. Choice B, avoiding NSAIDs, is not directly related to post-cataract surgery care. Choices C and D, using warm compresses and applying cold packs, are not typically part of the standard post-operative care for cataract surgery.
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