a nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 meql which of the following findings should the nurse expect

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
B. Positive Chvostek's sign
C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
D. Dry mucous membranes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected deep tendon reflexes occur with hyponatremia. Other manifestations of hyponatremia include headache, confusion, lethargy, fatigue, seizures, and muscle weakness. Positive Chvostek's sign is associated with hypocalcemia, hyperactive bowel sounds are not typically related to hyponatremia, and dry mucous membranes are more commonly seen with dehydration.

2. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?

A. Flattened T waves
B. Elevated ST segments
C. Prominent U waves
D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

3. What is the primary concern for a patient with a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³?

A. Increased risk of severe infection
B. Increased risk of anemia
C. Increased risk of bleeding
D. Increased risk of dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³ indicates a severely immunocompromised state, leading to an increased risk of severe infection. In individuals with low CD4 counts, the immune system is significantly weakened, making them more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), bleeding (choice C), and dehydration (choice D) are not the primary concerns associated with a low CD4 T-cell count. While these conditions may occur as secondary effects or complications, the primary focus is on preventing and managing severe infections in patients with severely compromised immune systems.

4. What symptoms are associated with a thrombotic stroke?

A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
B. Sudden loss of consciousness
C. Loss of motor function with nausea
D. Severe headache and vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A thrombotic stroke presents with a gradual loss of function on one side of the body due to a clot blocking blood flow to the brain. This gradual onset distinguishes it from a hemorrhagic stroke with sudden symptoms like loss of consciousness (Choice B), and from other conditions like migraine, which may present with severe headache and vomiting (Choice D). Nausea (Choice C) is not typically a primary symptom associated with a thrombotic stroke.

5. What is the first medication to administer to a patient experiencing wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

A. Albuterol via nebulizer
B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
C. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-choice medication for wheezing due to its fast-acting bronchodilatory effect, which helps in relieving the symptoms quickly. Choice B, Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV, is a corticosteroid used for its anti-inflammatory effects and would be beneficial in reducing inflammation in allergic reactions but is not the first-line treatment for wheezing. Choice C, Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer, is a mast cell stabilizer used to prevent asthma attacks but is not the immediate treatment for wheezing during an allergic reaction. Choice D, Aminophylline 500 mg IV, is a bronchodilator but is not typically the initial medication of choice for wheezing in an allergic reaction.