Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• B. Positive Chvostek's sign
• C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• D. Dry mucous membranes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected deep tendon reflexes occur with hyponatremia. Other manifestations of hyponatremia include headache, confusion, lethargy, fatigue, seizures, and muscle weakness. Positive Chvostek's sign is associated with hypocalcemia, hyperactive bowel sounds are not typically related to hyponatremia, and dry mucous membranes are more commonly seen with dehydration.

2. What should a healthcare professional monitor for in a patient with compartment syndrome?

• A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
• B. Localized redness and swelling
• C. Fever and signs of infection
• D. Loss of deep tendon reflexes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness are classic signs of compartment syndrome. In this condition, increased pressure within a muscle compartment impairs blood flow, leading to severe pain that is not relieved by usual measures, pallor from decreased blood flow, and pulselessness due to compromised circulation. These signs indicate a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Localized redness and swelling (Choice B) are more characteristic of inflammation or infection rather than compartment syndrome. Fever and signs of infection (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Loss of deep tendon reflexes (Choice D) is associated with conditions affecting the nervous system, not compartment syndrome.

3. What are the expected changes on an ECG for a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. ST elevation
• D. Wide QRS complexes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily manifests as flattened T waves on an ECG. While prominent U waves can be seen in hypokalemia, they are not as specific as flattened T waves. ST elevation is more commonly associated with conditions like myocardial infarction rather than hypokalemia. Wide QRS complexes are typically not a feature of hypokalemia on an ECG.

4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?

• A. Low potassium diet
• B. High fiber diet
• C. Low fat diet
• D. Low sodium diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Low fat diet. A low-fat diet is recommended for clients with chronic cholecystitis to reduce episodes of biliary colic. High-fat foods can trigger symptoms by causing the gallbladder to contract, leading to pain. Choice A, a low potassium diet, is not specifically indicated for chronic cholecystitis. Choice B, a high fiber diet, though generally healthy, may worsen symptoms in some individuals with cholecystitis due to the increased intestinal gas production. Choice D, a low sodium diet, is not directly related to the management of chronic cholecystitis.

5. What is the priority intervention when a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

• A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
• B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
• C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
• D. Increase the flow of the enema solution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to lower the height of the enema solution container. This action can help relieve abdominal cramping by slowing the flow of the enema, reducing discomfort for the patient. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is not the priority as adjusting the height of the container can often resolve the issue without needing to stop the procedure completely. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, may not address the immediate discomfort experienced by the patient. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, can exacerbate the cramping and should be avoided.

Similar Questions