what is the priority lab value for monitoring a patient with hiv
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What is the priority lab value for monitoring a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it serves as a key indicator of immune function. A count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choice B, serum albumin levels, though important for assessing nutritional status, is not the priority lab value for HIV monitoring. Choice C, white blood cell count, is a nonspecific measure of immune function and may not accurately reflect the status of the immune system in HIV patients. Choice D, hemoglobin levels, are essential for evaluating anemia but are not the primary lab value for monitoring HIV.

2. What are the expected findings in a patient with hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac dysrhythmias. Hypokalemia is commonly associated with cardiac dysrhythmias due to the role potassium plays in maintaining proper electrical conduction in the heart. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. While hypokalemia can lead to muscle weakness, the most critical and life-threatening manifestation is cardiac dysrhythmias. Seizures and confusion are more commonly associated with other electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia. Bradycardia is not a typical finding in hypokalemia, as it tends to cause tachycardia or other arrhythmias.

3. A client is being taught about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for colorectal cancer screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should advise the client to avoid corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications, and vitamin C before fecal occult blood testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect as stool samples for FOBT are usually collected using a kit at home. Choice B is incorrect because stimulant laxatives are not typically used before FOBT. Choice C is incorrect as guidelines recommend starting colorectal cancer screening at the age of 50, not 40.

4. What should a healthcare professional monitor in a patient receiving insulin who is at risk for hypoglycemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in patients receiving insulin who are at risk for hypoglycemia. Insulin can lower blood sugar levels, potentially leading to hypoglycemia, which can be harmful if not promptly recognized and managed. Checking blood glucose levels allows for early detection of low blood sugar levels, enabling timely interventions to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to monitoring for hypoglycemia in patients receiving insulin.

5. What dietary instructions should be provided for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease should limit phosphorus intake to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders in patients with kidney disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing protein intake is not recommended as it can burden the kidneys. Increasing sodium intake is usually discouraged due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention in kidney disease. Avoiding potassium-rich foods is more relevant in advanced kidney disease stages when potassium levels are high, not in pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease.

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