Nursing Elites

1. What dietary recommendations should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase sodium intake
• C. Increase protein intake
• D. Increase potassium intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications in such patients. Increasing sodium intake (Choice B) is generally not recommended due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention. While protein is essential, increasing protein intake (Choice C) in kidney disease can be harmful as it can lead to increased waste products that the kidneys may struggle to excrete. Increasing potassium intake (Choice D) is not advisable as well, as patients with kidney disease may already have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia.

2. What dietary recommendations should be provided to a patient with GERD?

• A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
• B. Eat large meals before bed
• C. Consume liquids with meals
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods. These types of foods can trigger acid reflux and worsen GERD symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as eating large meals before bed can increase the likelihood of acid reflux due to increased pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice C is also incorrect as consuming liquids with meals can cause distension in the stomach, potentially leading to reflux. Choice D is not directly related to GERD, as foods high in potassium are generally healthy and not specifically problematic for GERD patients.

3. What is the priority action when a healthcare professional misreads a glucose reading and administers excess insulin?

• A. Administer IV glucose
• B. Monitor for hyperglycemia
• C. Monitor for hypoglycemia
• D. Document the incident

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action when a healthcare professional misreads a glucose reading and administers excess insulin is to monitor for hypoglycemia. Excess insulin can lead to dangerously low blood sugar levels (hypoglycemia), which can result in serious complications. Monitoring for hypoglycemia allows for timely identification and intervention to prevent harm. Administering IV glucose may be necessary if hypoglycemia occurs. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is not the priority in this situation, as excess insulin would lower blood sugar levels. Documenting the incident is important for reporting and quality improvement purposes but should not take precedence over ensuring patient safety by monitoring for hypoglycemia.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

• A. Monitor for increased blood pressure
• B. Increase intake of high-potassium foods
• C. Expect an increase in swelling in the hands and feet
• D. Take the second dose at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Furosemide can lead to hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood. Increasing the consumption of high-potassium foods helps prevent this adverse effect. Monitoring for increased blood pressure (choice A) is not directly related to furosemide use. Expecting an increase in swelling (choice C) is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce swelling. Taking the second dose at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary unless prescribed by the healthcare provider.

5. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Elevated ST segments
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

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