ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is preparing to reposition a client who had a stroke. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Raise the side rails on both sides of the client's bed during repositioning.
- B. Reposition the client without assistive devices.
- C. Discuss the client's preferences to determine a repositioning schedule.
- D. Evaluate the client's ability to help with repositioning.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's ability to help with repositioning. When caring for a client who had a stroke, assessing their ability to participate in repositioning is crucial for promoting safety and encouraging their involvement in their care. This evaluation helps determine the level of assistance needed and supports the client's autonomy. Option A is incorrect because raising the side rails alone does not address the client's active involvement in repositioning. Option B is incorrect as using assistive devices may be necessary for safe repositioning. Option C is incorrect as discussing preferences is important but does not directly address the client's ability to assist in repositioning.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
- B. Check the client's peripheral pulse every 30 minutes.
- C. Obtain a prescription for restraints within 4 hours.
- D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario presented, the correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with a verbal prescription for restraints due to acute mania is to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. Documenting at regular intervals is essential to monitor the client's well-being, assess the effects of the restraints, and ensure the client's safety. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary as the focus should be on monitoring the client's condition. Checking the client's peripheral pulse every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not as crucial as documenting the overall condition. Obtaining a prescription for restraints within 4 hours (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed when a verbal prescription is already obtained.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and is receiving oxytocin. Which of the following findings indicates that the nurse should increase the rate of infusion?
- A. Urine output of 20 ml/hr
- B. Montevideo units consistently at 300 mm Hg
- C. FHR pattern with absent variability
- D. Contractions every 5 minutes that last 30 seconds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because contractions every 5 minutes that last 30 seconds indicate that the rate of infusion should be increased. This pattern suggests weak contractions or intervals that are too far apart, requiring an adjustment to improve labor progress. Option A is incorrect as a low urine output is not directly related to the need for an increase in the oxytocin infusion rate. Option B, Montevideo units consistently at 300 mm Hg, is incorrect because it is a measure of intrauterine pressure and does not determine the need for an increase in oxytocin infusion. Option C, FHR pattern with absent variability, is incorrect as it may indicate fetal distress but does not specifically relate to the need for adjusting the oxytocin infusion rate.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply the patch to your upper arm.
- B. You should remove the patch before showering.
- C. Rotate the patch site each time you apply it.
- D. Apply the patch to your lower abdomen.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to rotate the patch site each time they apply it. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and ensures the effectiveness of nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Applying the patch to the same site each time can lead to skin irritation and decreased patch efficacy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to the upper arm, removing it before showering, and placing it on the lower abdomen do not promote proper rotation of patch sites, which is essential for optimal outcomes.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.
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