ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is preparing to reposition a client who had a stroke. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Raise the side rails on both sides of the client's bed during repositioning.
- B. Reposition the client without assistive devices.
- C. Discuss the client's preferences to determine a repositioning schedule.
- D. Evaluate the client's ability to help with repositioning.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's ability to help with repositioning. When caring for a client who had a stroke, assessing their ability to participate in repositioning is crucial for promoting safety and encouraging their involvement in their care. This evaluation helps determine the level of assistance needed and supports the client's autonomy. Option A is incorrect because raising the side rails alone does not address the client's active involvement in repositioning. Option B is incorrect as using assistive devices may be necessary for safe repositioning. Option C is incorrect as discussing preferences is important but does not directly address the client's ability to assist in repositioning.
2. A client with a new diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Joint pain.
- B. Weight gain.
- C. Butterfly-shaped rash on the face.
- D. Increased appetite.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Weight gain is a common finding in clients with systemic lupus erythematosus due to fluid retention. Joint pain (choice A) is also common in SLE but is not specific to fluid retention. A butterfly-shaped rash on the face (choice C) is a classic symptom of SLE but is not related to fluid retention. Increased appetite (choice D) is less likely in SLE compared to weight gain.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Barrel-shaped chest
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Increased respiratory rate
- D. Tracheal deviation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a common finding in clients with ARDS as the body attempts to compensate for impaired gas exchange. Barrel-shaped chest (Choice A) is associated with conditions like COPD, not ARDS. Bradycardia (Choice B) is unlikely in ARDS due to the body's compensatory mechanisms to improve oxygenation. Tracheal deviation (Choice D) is not typically seen in ARDS and is more suggestive of other respiratory conditions.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The nurse should identify that which of the following client reports is an indication of hypocalcemia?
- A. Constipation
- B. Frequent urination
- C. Numbness and tingling of the fingers
- D. Increased thirst
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Numbness and tingling of the fingers.' Post-thyroidectomy, hypocalcemia is a concern due to potential damage to the parathyroid glands that regulate calcium levels. Numbness and tingling of the fingers are classic signs of hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice A) is not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Frequent urination (Choice B) is more indicative of conditions like diabetes or a urinary tract infection. Increased thirst (Choice D) is commonly seen in conditions such as diabetes insipidus or uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, not specifically related to hypocalcemia.
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