ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. What is the primary nursing action for a patient with confusion post-surgery?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Monitor vital signs
- D. Check oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the primary nursing action for a patient with confusion post-surgery because it helps address any potential hypoxia that may be contributing to the patient's confusion. While repositioning the patient, monitoring vital signs, and checking oxygen saturation are important nursing interventions, administering oxygen takes precedence in ensuring adequate oxygenation levels, which is crucial in managing post-surgery confusion.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart
- B. Administration of acetaminophen
- C. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hours
- D. Withhold heparin IV infusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis is to withhold heparin IV infusion. Administering heparin is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis by preventing further clot formation. Positioning the affected extremity higher than the heart (Choice A) promotes venous return and reduces swelling. Acetaminophen (Choice B) can be given for pain relief. Massaging the affected extremity (Choice C) is contraindicated as it can dislodge a clot, leading to serious complications.
3. While caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
- B. Administer a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride.
- C. Check the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours.
- D. Flush the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Checking the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours is essential when managing a client on TPN to monitor for hyperglycemia, a common complication. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important but not a priority in this scenario. Administering a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice B) is not indicated as it is unrelated to managing TPN. Flushing the TPN line with sterile water (Choice D) is necessary, but it should be done with 0.9% sodium chloride, not water.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Diaphoresis
- B. Hypotension
- C. Urinary retention
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Urinary retention is an adverse effect of morphine, as it can lead to the relaxation of the detrusor muscle and sphincter constriction in the bladder. Diaphoresis, hypotension, and tachycardia are common side effects of morphine due to its vasodilatory effects and impact on the autonomic nervous system. Diaphoresis is excessive sweating, which can be a normal response to pain or fever. Hypotension and tachycardia can occur due to morphine's vasodilatory effects and its impact on the cardiovascular system. Therefore, the presence of urinary retention would indicate the need for further assessment and intervention.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.
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