ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide can cause low potassium levels, and clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness.
2. When caring for a client with asthma experiencing an acute exacerbation, which medication should the nurse administer first?
- A. Montelukast
- B. Salmeterol
- C. Albuterol
- D. Fluticasone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During an acute asthma exacerbation, the priority is to quickly relieve bronchoconstriction and improve airflow. Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that acts rapidly to dilate the airways, making it the first-line medication for acute symptom relief. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for long-term asthma control, not for immediate relief. Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator used for maintenance therapy, not for acute exacerbations. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid that reduces airway inflammation and is also used for long-term control, not for immediate relief during an exacerbation.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Urine output of 40 mL/hr.
- B. Heart rate of 88/min.
- C. Wound drainage of 25 mL in 24 hours.
- D. Abdominal distention and rigidity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Abdominal distention and rigidity may indicate a postoperative complication, such as bowel obstruction or peritonitis, and should be reported to the provider. While monitoring urine output, heart rate, and wound drainage are essential postoperative assessments, they are not as concerning as abdominal distention and rigidity, which could signal a more urgent issue requiring immediate attention.
4. A client is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the priority?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
- B. Check the client's urinary output.
- C. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
- D. Assess the client's pain level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioid analgesics, the priority assessment is monitoring respiratory rate. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress promptly. Checking the client's blood pressure (Choice A) and urinary output (Choice B) are important assessments too, but they are not the priority when compared to ensuring adequate respiratory function. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice D) is essential for overall care but is not the priority assessment when the client is on opioids, as respiratory status takes precedence.
5. A client who has a new prescription for prednisone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid taking this medication with food.
- B. I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.
- C. I will take this medication for 2 weeks and then stop.
- D. I will take this medication with a high-protein snack.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because prednisone is usually prescribed for long-term use. Stopping it abruptly can lead to adrenal insufficiency. Choice A is incorrect because prednisone should be taken with food to prevent stomach upset. Choice C is incorrect as prednisone is typically tapered off gradually to avoid adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take prednisone with a high-protein snack.
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