Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
• B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
• C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
• D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide can cause low potassium levels, and clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness.

2. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient who is experiencing acute pain?

• A. Administer analgesics as prescribed
• B. Reposition the patient to alleviate pain
• C. Offer non-pharmacological interventions
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Administering prescribed analgesics is the most effective way to manage acute pain. Analgesics help in reducing or eliminating pain quickly and efficiently. Repositioning the patient may be helpful in certain cases to relieve discomfort, but it is not the primary intervention for managing acute pain. Non-pharmacological interventions can be beneficial as adjuncts to pain management, but in cases of acute pain, administering analgesics is the priority. Administering IV fluids may be necessary for certain conditions but is not the primary intervention for managing acute pain.

3. A nurse is assessing a newborn who was delivered at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Dry, cracked skin.
• B. Lanugo covering the skin.
• C. Vernix caseosa covering the skin.
• D. Creases covering the soles of the feet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lanugo covering the skin. Lanugo, a fine downy hair, is a common finding in newborns delivered prematurely at 32 weeks gestation. Choice A (Dry, cracked skin) is incorrect as premature infants often have translucent and delicate skin. Choice C (Vernix caseosa covering the skin) is incorrect as vernix, a waxy substance, is more commonly seen in full-term newborns. Choice D (Creases covering the soles of the feet) is incorrect as creases on the soles of the feet are a normal finding in term newborns, not specifically related to prematurity.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 100 mL in 4 hours
• B. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• C. Heart rate of 94/min
• D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Platelets 250,000/mm³
• B. aPTT 60 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
• D. INR 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

Similar Questions