ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hour postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Fundus firm and at the umbilicus.
- B. Heart rate 80/min.
- C. Blood pressure 130/78 mm Hg.
- D. A constant trickle of bright red blood from the vagina.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After childbirth, it is normal for the fundus to be firm and at the level of the umbilicus, heart rate to be around 80/min, and blood pressure to be slightly elevated. However, a constant trickle of bright red blood from the vagina is concerning as it could indicate postpartum hemorrhage. This finding should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and C are within expected postpartum parameters and do not indicate an immediate need for intervention.
3. A client has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Take this medication with milk if it causes stomach upset.
- C. Take this medication with orange juice to increase absorption.
- D. Take an antacid 1 hour after this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction is to take ferrous sulfate with orange juice to increase absorption because the vitamin C content in orange juice enhances iron absorption. Choice A is incorrect because ferrous sulfate should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice B is incorrect because milk can decrease iron absorption. Choice D is incorrect because antacids can reduce the absorption of ferrous sulfate.
4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is scheduled for an arteriogram. Which of the following medications should the nurse instruct the client to discontinue 48 hours prior to the procedure?
- A. Atorvastatin
- B. Digoxin
- C. Nifedipine
- D. Metformin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Metformin. Metformin should be discontinued 48 hours before an arteriogram due to the risk of lactic acidosis. Atorvastatin (Choice A) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not typically contraindicated before an arteriogram. Digoxin (Choice B) is a medication used for heart conditions and does not need to be discontinued before an arteriogram. Nifedipine (Choice C) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure and angina, and it is not necessary to discontinue before the procedure.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
- A. Low back pain.
- B. Bradycardia.
- C. Chills.
- D. Distended neck veins.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Low back pain. Low back pain is a common sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction, indicating the destruction of red blood cells. This finding requires immediate intervention as it can lead to serious complications such as renal failure. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Chills (choice C) can be seen in febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions. Distended neck veins (choice D) are more indicative of fluid overload rather than a hemolytic reaction.
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