Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.

2. While caring for a client receiving hemodialysis, which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Withhold all medications until after dialysis.
• B. Check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis.
• C. Rehydrate with dextrose 5% in water for hypotension.
• D. Give an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care when caring for a client receiving hemodialysis is to check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis. This is crucial to monitor for any signs of bleeding or complications at the access site. Withholding all medications until after dialysis (Choice A) is not necessary unless specified for certain medications. Rehydrating with dextrose 5% in water for hypotension (Choice C) is not appropriate for addressing hypotension related to hemodialysis. Giving an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis (Choice D) is not typically indicated unless there is a specific medical indication for prophylactic antibiotic use.

3. A client is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of hypocalcemia?

• A. Constipation
• B. Numbness and tingling of the fingers
• C. Increased thirst
• D. Frequent urination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Numbness and tingling of the fingers are classic signs of hypocalcemia, a condition that may result from inadvertent damage to the parathyroid glands during a thyroidectomy. These symptoms occur due to decreased levels of calcium in the bloodstream affecting nerve function. Choices A, C, and D are not typical manifestations of hypocalcemia. Constipation is more associated with hypercalcemia, increased thirst can be seen in diabetes or dehydration, and frequent urination is a symptom more commonly linked to conditions like diabetes or urinary tract issues.

4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which dietary recommendation should be included?

• A. Consume food high in bran fiber.
• B. Increase intake of milk products.
• C. Sweeten foods with fructose corn syrup.
• D. Increase foods high in gluten.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume food high in bran fiber. Bran fiber helps reduce IBS symptoms by promoting regular bowel movements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing milk products can exacerbate symptoms in some individuals with IBS, sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup may worsen symptoms due to its high FODMAP content, and increasing foods high in gluten could be problematic for individuals with gluten sensitivities or celiac disease, which are common in some with IBS.

5. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with a potassium supplement.
• B. Avoid foods that contain potassium.
• C. Limit your fluid intake while taking this medication.
• D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid foods high in potassium helps prevent hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of spironolactone. Choice A is incorrect because taking spironolactone with a potassium supplement can increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use. Choice D is also incorrect as spironolactone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

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