Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

• A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
• B. Early detection of mental illness
• C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
• D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

2. How is the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure evaluated?

• A. Checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement
• B. Assessing the patient's blood pressure and urine output
• C. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema
• D. Measuring the patient's heart rate and lung sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure is by checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement. Daily weights help to assess fluid retention changes, while improvement in lung sounds indicates reduced pulmonary congestion. Assessing blood pressure and urine output (Choice B) is important but does not directly evaluate the effectiveness of the diuretic. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema (Choice C) are valid indicators of diuretic effectiveness, but direct observation of daily weights and lung sounds is more specific. Measuring heart rate and lung sounds (Choice D) is relevant but does not directly assess the impact of the diuretic on fluid balance and pulmonary status.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who received their medications 1 hour ago. The client reports chest pain. This can be an adverse effect of what medication?

• A. Digoxin
• B. Albuterol
• C. Lisinopril
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Albuterol. Albuterol can cause chest pain as a side effect due to its beta-agonist effects, which can lead to chest discomfort. Digoxin (choice A) is not typically associated with causing chest pain. Lisinopril (choice C) and Metoprolol (choice D) are not known to commonly cause chest pain as a side effect.

4. A nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned from surgery. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Monitor the patient's pain level.
• B. Assess the patient's vital signs.
• C. Assess the surgical incision site.
• D. Position the patient in a high Fowler's position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient's vital signs. Assessing vital signs is crucial as it helps to detect any early signs of complications such as bleeding, shock, or changes in oxygenation. Monitoring the patient's pain level (Choice A) is important but assessing vital signs takes precedence. While assessing the surgical incision site (Choice C) is essential, ensuring the patient's physiological stability through vital sign assessment is the priority. Positioning the patient in a high Fowler's position (Choice D) may be necessary for comfort but does not address the immediate need to assess the patient's condition post-surgery.

5. A nurse is evaluating a client receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following lab values requires immediate intervention?

• A. Sodium 135 mEq/L
• B. Potassium 6.5 mEq/L
• C. Calcium 9 mg/dL
• D. Chloride 98 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Potassium levels above 5.0 mEq/L can lead to cardiac issues, and a level of 6.5 mEq/L requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in the context of hemodialysis monitoring.

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