what is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B

1. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

2. A nurse is preparing to discontinue a client's indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action the nurse should take when discontinuing a client's indwelling urinary catheter is to measure and document the urine in the drainage bag. This step is essential to assess the client's urinary output and bladder function before removing the catheter. Removing the tape securing the catheter (Choice B) or positioning the client supine (Choice C) should come after measuring and documenting the urine output. Deflating the catheter balloon (Choice D) is the last step in the process of removing the catheter.

3. The nurse notes that a healthcare provider has prescribed a higher than normal dose of medication. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a healthcare provider prescribes a dose that is higher than normal, it is crucial for the nurse to contact the provider to clarify the prescription. Administering the prescribed dose without clarification can lead to potential harm to the patient due to the elevated dosage. Asking another nurse to verify the dose may not provide the necessary clarification from the prescriber. Administering only half of the prescribed dose without consulting the healthcare provider is not the appropriate action, as the full rationale behind the higher dose needs to be understood before any administration.

4. A nurse in an emergency department is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult client who is transferring to a medical-surgical unit using the SBAR communication tool. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an SBAR report, key information such as the client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) status should be included as it directly impacts the client's care and treatment plan. Choices B and C are important details but may not be as critical for immediate care planning during the shift change. Choice D, the client having Medicare insurance, is important for billing purposes but does not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.

5. Which of the following is a correct method of safely using a sterile dressing?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct method of safely using a sterile dressing is to discard it after 24 hours of use. This is important to prevent contamination and promote proper wound healing. Choice A is incorrect because reusing a dressing, even if it appears clean, can introduce contaminants. Choice C is incorrect as dressing changes should not be based solely on visible drainage; they should be done within the recommended time frame. Choice D is incorrect because changing a dressing every 4 hours, regardless of its condition, can lead to unnecessary wastage and disturbance to the wound healing process.

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