what is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B

1. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

2. When teaching a patient with a new prescription for brimonidine to treat open-angle glaucoma, what indicates an understanding of the instructions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When using brimonidine to treat open-angle glaucoma, patients may experience temporary irritation in the eyes. Choice A is incorrect because vision improvement from brimonidine is not immediate. Choice B is incorrect as brimonidine should be used as prescribed, not just when eyes are irritated. Choice D is important but does not directly indicate an understanding of the medication's use.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the lab results of a client with liver disease. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated ammonia levels in a client with liver disease can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that can cause cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice A) are common in liver disease but do not require immediate intervention. Low albumin levels (Choice B) and low hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are also common in liver disease but do not pose an immediate threat compared to elevated ammonia levels.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing an immobile patient for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What should the healthcare provider do?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Measuring the calf circumference of both legs is crucial when assessing for DVT in an immobile patient. A significant increase in the circumference of one calf compared to the other suggests the presence of a deep vein thrombosis. Option A is incorrect because rubbing the lower leg may dislodge a clot if present. Option B is incorrect as elastic stockings should not be removed frequently as this can increase the risk of clot formation. Option D is incorrect as dorsiflexing the foot can lead to pain and should not be done to assess for DVT.

5. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with a new tracheostomy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to suction the tracheostomy as needed to maintain a patent airway. After a tracheostomy procedure, the immediate concern is airway patency to prevent respiratory compromise. Suctioning helps clear secretions and maintains a clear airway, reducing the risk of respiratory distress. Monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation (choice B) is important but not the priority compared to ensuring a clear airway. Providing humidified air (choice C) and administering pain medication (choice D) are also essential aspects of care for a patient with a tracheostomy, but they are not the priority when immediate airway management is required.

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