a nurse is preparing a client for a surgical procedure the client refuses to remove religious jewelry what is the best course of action
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Comprehensive Assessment B

1. A client is preparing for a surgical procedure but refuses to remove religious jewelry. What is the best course of action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best course of action is to ask the client for permission to secure the jewelry. This respects the client's religious beliefs while also ensuring that the jewelry does not interfere during the surgical procedure. Proceeding with surgery without addressing the presence of the jewelry can lead to complications or distress for the client. Removing the jewelry without consent or postponing the surgery solely due to the presence of religious jewelry are not appropriate actions in this situation.

2. What are the clinical signs of hyperglycemia in a patient with diabetes mellitus, and how should a nurse respond?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct signs of hyperglycemia in a patient with diabetes mellitus are polyuria (excessive urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger). These symptoms indicate high blood sugar levels. Therefore, the correct response for a nurse would be to recognize these signs, monitor blood glucose levels, and administer insulin to manage the hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because it only addresses the response aspect without mentioning the signs. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the classic clinical signs of hyperglycemia in diabetes mellitus.

3. While reviewing a client's chart, a nurse notices a discrepancy in the medication record. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reporting medication discrepancies to the nurse manager is crucial to ensure patient safety and proper follow-up. The nurse manager is responsible for addressing medication errors and implementing necessary corrective actions. Choice A is incorrect because simply correcting the discrepancy without reporting it may lead to potential harm to the patient and violates professional standards. Choice C is incorrect as ignoring the discrepancy increases the risk of medication errors going unresolved. Choice D is incorrect because discussing the discrepancy with the client before verifying the accuracy of the record can cause confusion and compromise patient safety.

4. A client with asthma is taking fluticasone. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct. Fluticasone, a corticosteroid medication commonly used to manage asthma, can lead to oral candidiasis due to its immunosuppressive effects. This fungal infection can manifest as white patches in the mouth and throat. Monitoring for signs of oral candidiasis is essential to initiate appropriate treatment. Polyuria (excessive urination) is not a common adverse effect of fluticasone. Hypertension and hypoglycemia are also not typically associated with this medication, making them incorrect choices.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which client first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with renal failure and high potassium levels requires immediate attention because hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac complications. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate helps lower the potassium levels. Choice A, the client with pneumonia and a high WBC count, although important, does not present an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice C, the post-CABG client prescribed atorvastatin, and Choice D, the client with anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa, do not require immediate intervention compared to managing hyperkalemia in a client with renal failure.

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