ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019
1. What is the main goal of discharge planning?
- A. To ensure that patients are discharged as quickly as possible
- B. To prevent hospital readmissions
- C. To educate patients about their medications
- D. To transition patients from one level of care to another
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The main goal of discharge planning is to prevent hospital readmissions by ensuring patients have a clear and effective plan for post-discharge care. This includes coordinating follow-up appointments, medication management, and providing necessary support services to promote a successful transition from the hospital to home or another care setting. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because discharge planning is not primarily about speedy discharge, medication education, or transitioning between care levels; its main focus is on preventing readmissions through comprehensive post-discharge care.
2. The charge nurse role has negatively affected your relationship with your friends and made you feel tense and isolated. You decide that you will delegate more time-consuming tasks to staff who are not your friends, who then complain to your nurse manager about your perceived unfairness. You decide to:
- A. Talk with your friends individually to let them know that you will be assigning patients to all staff in an equitable manner.
- B. Not express your angry feelings.
- C. Talk about staff who are annoying you with staff on other units.
- D. Ignore your feelings of uncertainty, hoping they will diminish.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, it is essential to address the perceived unfairness in task delegation. Talking with your friends individually to explain that patients will be assigned equitably is the most appropriate course of action. This approach promotes transparency and fairness in task allocation, helping to maintain professional relationships. Choices B, C, and D are not suitable responses. Choice B ignores the issue, choice C involves unprofessional behavior by gossiping about colleagues, and choice D neglects addressing the root cause of the problem.
3. Which of the following best describes the concept of evidence-based practice (EBP)?
- A. Clinical expertise as the primary basis for decision making
- B. Research findings as the sole basis for decision making
- C. Combining clinical expertise with the best available research evidence
- D. Following institutional guidelines for patient care
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Combining clinical expertise with the best available research evidence.' Evidence-based practice (EBP) emphasizes integrating clinical expertise with the most current and relevant research evidence when making decisions about patient care. Choice A is incorrect because EBP does not rely solely on clinical expertise. Choice B is incorrect as EBP considers research evidence alongside clinical expertise, not as the sole basis. Choice D is incorrect because EBP is not about blindly following institutional guidelines, but rather about integrating research evidence with clinical judgment to provide the best possible care.
4. 12. A patient receives aspart (NovoLog) insulin at 8:00 AM. At which time will it be most important for the nurse to monitor for symptoms of hypoglycemia?
- A. 10:00 AM
- B. 12:00 PM
- C. 2:00 PM
- D. 4:00 PM
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After receiving aspart (NovoLog) insulin, which has a rapid onset, it is crucial to monitor the patient for symptoms of hypoglycemia during the peak action time. Typically, the peak action of aspart insulin occurs around 2 hours after administration. Therefore, the nurse should be most vigilant for hypoglycemia symptoms at 10:00 AM. Choice B (12:00 PM) is incorrect as it falls after the expected peak action time. Choices C (2:00 PM) and D (4:00 PM) are also incorrect because the peak action time of aspart insulin typically occurs earlier, around 2 hours post-administration.
5. A nurse is planning an educational program for a group of older adults at a senior living center. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?
- A. You should receive a pneumococcal vaccine when you are 65 years old.
- B. You should receive a shingles vaccine when you are 70 years old.
- C. You should receive a tetanus booster every 5 years.
- D. You should have an eye examination every 2 years.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The CDC recommends a pneumococcal vaccine for all adults aged 65 years and older. This vaccine helps protect against serious pneumococcal disease. Choice B is incorrect as the shingles vaccine is recommended for adults aged 50 years and older, not specifically at 70 years. Choice C is incorrect because a tetanus booster is recommended every 10 years, not every 5 years. Choice D is incorrect as the general recommendation for eye examinations in older adults is annually, not every 2 years.
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