Nursing Elites

1. What is the main purpose of a nursing code of ethics?

• A. To protect the rights and dignity of patients
• B. To ensure compliance with healthcare laws
• C. To set standards for clinical practice
• D. To provide a framework for ethical decision-making in nursing practice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The main purpose of a nursing code of ethics is to provide a framework for ethical decision-making in nursing practice. While choice A is important, the primary focus of a nursing code of ethics is not solely to protect the rights and dignity of patients but to guide nurses in making ethical decisions. Choice B is more related to legal requirements, not the ethical aspects covered by a code of ethics. Choice C, setting standards for clinical practice, is important but distinct from the primary purpose of a code of ethics, which is centered on ethical decision-making.

2. On a voting ballot, the individuals who are to be elected during a vote are called:

• A. Representatives.
• B. Candidates.
• C. Bargaining agents.
• D. Electorate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct term for individuals who are to be elected during a vote is 'Candidates.' On a voting ballot, voters choose among the candidates running for a particular position or office. 'Representatives' (Choice A) are individuals who have already been elected to represent a group of people. 'Bargaining agents' (Choice C) typically refer to individuals negotiating on behalf of others, not those being elected. 'Electorate' (Choice D) refers to all the people in a country or area who are entitled to vote in an election, not specifically the candidates themselves.

3. After her evaluation, a staff nurse exclaims: 'I'm not sure if my manager knows much about my performance, really. He only had three specific examples to give me, two good performance examples and one to work on, and they all happened in the last month. I don't feel like he can see the whole picture.' What kind of performance appraisal rating does this statement exemplify?

• A. Recency error
• B. Leniency error
• C. Halo error
• D. Absolute judgment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The statement exemplifies a recency error. Recency error occurs when a manager assesses an employee's performance primarily based on recent events, rather than considering the entire evaluation period. In this case, the staff nurse feels that her manager focused only on recent examples, leading to an incomplete assessment of her overall performance. Choice B, Leniency error, refers to a rater consistently giving high ratings to all employees regardless of performance, which is not evident in this scenario. Choice C, Halo error, involves allowing one positive attribute of an individual to overshadow other characteristics during appraisal, which is not the case here. Absolute judgment, Choice D, is when a rater evaluates an employee without reference to any specific criteria, which is not reflected in the staff nurse's feedback.

4. What are the key elements essential to the implementation of case management? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Collaborative practice teams
• B. Established critical pathways
• C. Quality management system
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the above.' Established critical pathways, collaborative practice teams, and quality management systems are indeed key elements essential to the implementation of case management. Collaborative practice teams allow for multidisciplinary collaboration, established critical pathways help guide patient care, and a quality management system ensures that care provided meets established standards. Choice A, collaborative practice teams, is correct as they are fundamental for effective case management, involving various professionals working together. Choice B, established critical pathways, is also correct as they provide a structured approach to managing patient care. Choice C, quality management system, is correct as it ensures that care is delivered at high standards and continuously monitored for improvement. Therefore, all these elements are crucial for successful case management implementation.

5. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

• A. 0.40 FTEs
• B. 17.0 FTEs
• C. 0.05 FTEs
• D. 1.0 FTEs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours ÷ 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

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