ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. What is the main focus of the Magnet Recognition Program?
- A. Nurse satisfaction
- B. Patient outcomes
- C. Financial performance
- D. Nursing excellence
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The main focus of the Magnet Recognition Program is nursing excellence. While nurse satisfaction and patient outcomes are important aspects influenced by the program, the primary goal is to recognize and promote nursing excellence. Financial performance is not the main focus of this program.
2. Which of the following types of HMOs (Health Maintenance Organizations) contracts with two or more IPAs (Independent Practice Associations)?
- A. Staff model
- B. Point of service model
- C. Network model
- D. Group model
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the Network model. This type of HMO contracts with two or more IPAs. In a Network model, multiple IPAs work together to provide healthcare services to the members. Choice A, the Staff model, involves physicians who are employees of the HMO. Choice B, the Point of Service model, allows members to seek care outside the network at a higher cost. Choice D, the Group model, does not specifically contract with IPAs.
3. Factors that may contribute to workplace violence in a health care setting include:
- A. Lack of armed security
- B. Continuous loud noises and/or poorly monitored entrances
- C. Poor staff interactions
- D. Tense shoulders and clenched fists
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Continuous loud noises and poorly monitored entrances can contribute to workplace violence by creating a chaotic environment that can escalate tensions. Factors like lack of armed security (choice A) may not be as significant in triggering violence as environmental factors. Poor staff interactions (choice C) can contribute to a negative work culture but may not directly lead to violence. Tense shoulders and clenched fists (choice D) may indicate stress or anger in an individual but are not factors that contribute to workplace violence in general.
4. A nurse is planning an educational program for a group of older adults at a senior living center. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?
- A. You should receive a pneumococcal vaccine when you are 65 years old.
- B. You should receive a shingles vaccine when you are 70 years old.
- C. You should receive a tetanus booster every 5 years.
- D. You should have an eye examination every 2 years.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The CDC recommends a pneumococcal vaccine for all adults aged 65 years and older. This vaccine helps protect against serious pneumococcal disease. Choice B is incorrect as the shingles vaccine is recommended for adults aged 50 years and older, not specifically at 70 years. Choice C is incorrect because a tetanus booster is recommended every 10 years, not every 5 years. Choice D is incorrect as the general recommendation for eye examinations in older adults is annually, not every 2 years.
5. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:
- A. It is needed to protect the organization from legal actions.
- B. It is required after a strenuous interview.
- C. It is mandated by law.
- D. It is necessary to screen for disabilities that may impact employment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.
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