what is the first step in treating a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. What is the initial step in managing a suspected pulmonary embolism in a patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the initial step in managing a suspected pulmonary embolism. Oxygen therapy is crucial to improve oxygenation levels in the blood when there is a suspected blockage in the pulmonary artery. Administering anticoagulants, although important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism, is not the first step as ensuring adequate oxygen supply takes precedence. Repositioning the patient or administering IV fluids are not the primary interventions for a suspected pulmonary embolism and are not as essential as providing oxygen support.

2. A client who has a positive stool culture for Clostridium difficile should be placed in which type of room for infection control purposes?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the client in a private room is the appropriate infection control measure for C. difficile to prevent the spread of infection. While wearing a face shield may be necessary for procedures that generate splashes or sprays, it is not the primary precaution for C. difficile. Negative pressure rooms are typically used for airborne infections, not for C. difficile. Using an alcohol-based hand rub is important for hand hygiene but is not specific to managing C. difficile infection.

3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has tuberculosis and a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine. Choice A is not related to rifampin; vision changes are not a common side effect of the medication. Choice C is more relevant to medications that cause photosensitivity reactions, not specifically rifampin. Choice D is incorrect because nausea is a common side effect of rifampin, but it does not warrant immediate discontinuation of the medication.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary modifications. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting protein intake is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease as it helps prevent further kidney damage. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (choice A) is not recommended for clients with kidney disease as high potassium levels can be harmful. Avoiding foods high in phosphorus (choice C) is important, but limiting protein intake is a higher priority. Increasing dairy product intake (choice D) is not ideal for clients with kidney disease as they may need to monitor their phosphorus intake from such foods.

5. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vision changes. Vision changes are a classic sign of digoxin toxicity and should be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. A heart rate of 78/min, a respiratory rate of 16/min, and a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg are within normal ranges and are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, they would not be the priority findings to report in this situation.

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