Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. aPTT
• C. INR
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin and to adjust the infusion rate if needed. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important for assessing anemia but is not specific to heparin therapy. INR (choice C) is used to monitor the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Platelet count (choice D) is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but aPTT is the primary laboratory value used to monitor heparin therapy.

2. A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application.
• B. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin.
• C. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch.
• D. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin. This action ensures that the nurse does not absorb any medication through their own skin, promoting safety. Choice A is incorrect because shaving is not necessary and could irritate the skin. Choice C is incorrect because transdermal patches should be applied immediately after removal from the protective pouch to maintain their efficacy. Choice D is incorrect because used patches should be folded and discarded safely according to facility protocols.

3. A client on glucocorticoid therapy is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I have my eyes examined annually.
• B. I take a calcium vitamin supplement daily.
• C. I limit my intake of foods with potassium.
• D. I consistently take my medication between 8 and 9 each evening.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking a calcium supplement daily is crucial for clients on glucocorticoid therapy to prevent osteoporosis, a common side effect of long-term use. Choice A is unrelated to glucocorticoid therapy. Choice C, limiting potassium intake, is not necessary for clients on glucocorticoids. Choice D, taking medication consistently in the evening, is important but does not specifically address the side effects of glucocorticoid therapy.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a child who is being treated for bacterial pneumonia. The provider notes an increase in the child's glucose level. The provider should identify this finding as an adverse effect of which of the following medications?

• A. Methylprednisolone.
• B. Ondansetron.
• C. Guaifenesin.
• D. Amoxicillin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct. Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, can lead to increased glucose levels as an adverse effect. Ondansetron is an antiemetic and does not typically cause elevated glucose levels. Guaifenesin is an expectorant and is not associated with raising glucose levels. Amoxicillin is an antibiotic and does not affect glucose levels.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare professional to report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 58/min
• B. Weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 24 hours
• C. Respiratory rate of 20/min
• D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A heart rate of 58/min is indicative of bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity, which should be reported immediately. While weight gain, respiratory rate, and temperature are important parameters to monitor, they are not as critical as identifying bradycardia in a client taking digoxin.

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