ATI RN TEST BANK

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

What is the first nursing action for a patient with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome?

    A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin

    B. Increase fluids to prevent dehydration

    C. Obtain cardiac enzymes

    D. Get IV access and auscultate heart sounds

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority nursing action for a patient with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate the blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and reduce cardiac workload. This action aims to relieve chest pain promptly and prevent further cardiac tissue damage. Increasing fluids is not the initial priority for a patient with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome. Obtaining cardiac enzymes is important for diagnosis but is not the first action in managing acute symptoms. Getting IV access and auscultating heart sounds are important interventions, but they come after administering sublingual nitroglycerin in the management of acute coronary syndrome.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?

  • A. The dressing was changed 7 days ago
  • B. The circumference of the client's upper arm has increased by 10%
  • C. The catheter has not been used in 8 hours
  • D. The catheter has been flushed with 10 mL of sterile saline after medication use

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An increase in the circumference of the client's upper arm by 10% could indicate deep vein thrombosis, which is a serious condition. Deep vein thrombosis can impede blood flow and potentially lead to life-threatening complications. Therefore, the nurse should notify the provider immediately about this finding. Choice A is not an immediate concern as PICC dressing changes are usually done every 7 days. Choice C is a normal finding as catheters may not be used for certain periods. Choice D is a correct procedure for maintaining catheter patency after medication use.

A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

  • A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
  • B. Positive Chvostek's sign
  • C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
  • D. Dry mucous membranes

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected deep tendon reflexes occur with hyponatremia. Other manifestations of hyponatremia include headache, confusion, lethargy, fatigue, seizures, and muscle weakness. Positive Chvostek's sign is associated with hypocalcemia, hyperactive bowel sounds are not typically related to hyponatremia, and dry mucous membranes are more commonly seen with dehydration.

What ECG changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia?

  • A. Flattened T waves and prominent U waves
  • B. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes
  • C. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes
  • D. Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves and prominent U waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in potassium levels, which can lead to ECG changes such as flattened T waves and prominent U waves. These changes are classic findings associated with hypokalemia. Choices B (Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes), C (Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes), and D (Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude) are all incorrect. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes, as well as widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude, do not represent the typical ECG changes seen in hypokalemia.

What lab value should be prioritized for a patient with HIV?

  • A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
  • B. Serum albumin levels
  • C. White blood cell count
  • D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 should be prioritized for a patient with HIV. This value is crucial as it indicates severe immunocompromise in HIV-infected individuals. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count helps assess the status of the immune system and guides treatment decisions. Serum albumin levels (choice B) may reflect the patient's nutritional status and overall health but are not as specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice C) and hemoglobin levels (choice D) can be affected by various factors and are not as directly linked to HIV management as the CD4 T-cell count in this context.

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