ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What should be done when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?
- A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
- B. Replace the chest tube system
- C. Clamp the chest tube
- D. Continue to monitor the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the appropriate action is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This may resolve an air leak that is causing the continuous bubbling. Option B, replacing the chest tube system, is not the initial step to take and is considered more invasive. Clamping the chest tube (option C) can lead to complications and should not be done unless instructed by a healthcare provider. Continuing to monitor the chest tube (option D) without taking any corrective action may delay necessary interventions.
2. When caring for a patient with a burn injury, what is the priority intervention?
- A. Monitor the burn area for infection
- B. Administer IV fluids
- C. Debride the burn area
- D. Apply a dry dressing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority intervention when caring for a patient with a burn injury is to monitor the burn area for infection. This is crucial to prevent further complications such as sepsis. While administering IV fluids is important for fluid resuscitation, it is not the top priority compared to preventing infection. Debriding the burn area and applying a dry dressing are necessary interventions for wound care, but ensuring there is no infection takes precedence to avoid sepsis and other serious complications.
3. What is the correct response when a patient receiving an enema reports abdominal cramping?
- A. Lower the height of the enema container
- B. Stop the enema procedure
- C. Remove the enema tubing
- D. Continue the enema at a slower rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response when a patient receiving an enema reports abdominal cramping is to lower the height of the enema container. Lowering the height reduces the flow rate, which can help relieve cramping. Stopping the procedure (choice B) may not be necessary if adjusting the height resolves the issue. Removing the enema tubing (choice C) is not the initial step to take when addressing abdominal cramping during an enema. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (choice D) might not be as effective as lowering the height of the container to alleviate cramping.
4. What is the expected ECG finding in a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Elevated ST segments
- C. Widened QRS complexes
- D. Widened QRS complexes on the ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in serum potassium levels, which can lead to various ECG changes. One of the classic ECG findings associated with hypokalemia is the presence of flattened T waves. These T wave abnormalities are typically seen in multiple leads. Choice B, elevated ST segments, is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia. Choice C, widened QRS complexes, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Choice D is redundant and not a standard way of describing ECG findings.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?
- A. Propofol
- B. Pancuronium
- C. Promethazine
- D. Pentoxifylline
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used for procedures like colonoscopies to induce moderate sedation. Pancuronium (Choice B) is a neuromuscular blocking agent used as a paralyzing agent during surgery, not for sedation. Promethazine (Choice C) is an antihistamine often used for nausea and vomiting, not as an anesthetic. Pentoxifylline (Choice D) is a medication used to improve blood flow and is not indicated for anesthesia.
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